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1Z0-1067-23 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2022 Cloud Operations Professional Exam

Format: Hands-on Performance Based
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $
Number of Questions: Not Applicable
Passing Score: 65%
Validation: This exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Earn associated certifications : Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Certified Cloud Operations Professional

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Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1067-23
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Cloud Operations Professional certification is a Hands-on Performance Exam (HPE) that combines hands-on challenges and multiple-choice questions. This certification validates the candidate’s ability to deploy core resources in OCI using various methods, including the OCI Command Line Interface (CLI) and Infrastructure as Code (IaC). Additionally, it encompasses configuring compute instances, optimizing cost and performance, implementing reliability and business continuity best practices, administering identity and access management policies, and effectively utilizing OCI’s observability platform. Current training and substantial hands-on experience are strongly recommended.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Become an OCI Cloud Operations Professional (2023)

Practice Exam
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics
The following weightings are an approximate distribution of objectives covered in this exam.
Objectives % of Exam
Deployment and Resource Management 30
Configuration Management 25
Cost and Performance Optimization 10
Reliability and Business Continuity 10
Identity and Security 15
Observability 10

Deployment and Resource Management
Manually deploy core services
Utilize the OCI CLI to query, provision, and destroy resources
Utilize infrastructure as code to deploy replicable stacks

Configuration Management
Utilize configuration management tools to configure resources
Utilize cloud-init to initialize compute instances

Cost and Performance Optimization
Implement cost optimization strategies
Implement performance optimization strategies
Implement budgets and compartment quotas to limit the usage

Reliability and Business Continuity
Implement scalability and elasticity
Implement automated failover
Implement data retention strategies

Identity and Security
Implement tenancy security posture
Manage secrets and encryption keys
Implement least-privilege access control policies

Observability
Understand and implement Metric Query Language (MQL)
Implement alarms and notifications
Understand and implement health checks

QUESTION 1
You have been asked to ensure that in-transit communication between an Oracle Cloud
Infrastructure (OCI) compute instance and an on-premises server (192.168.10.10) is encrypted.
The instances communicate using HTTP. The OCI Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) is connected to the onpremises
network by two separate connections: a Dynamic IPsec VPN tunnel and a FastConnect
virtual circuit. No static configuration has been added.
What solution should you recommend? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The instances will communicate by default over IPsec VPN, which ensures data is encrypted intransit.
B. Advertise a 192.168.10.10 route over the VPN.
C. Advertise a 192.168.10.10 router over the FastConnect.
D. The instances will communicate by default over the FastConnect private virtual circuit, which ensures data is encrypted in-transit.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have created a group for several auditors. You assign the following policies to the group:
What actions are the auditors allowed to perform within your tenancy? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The Auditors can view resources in the tenancy.
B. Auditors are able to create new instances in the tenancy.
C. The Auditors are able to delete resource in the tenancy.
D. Auditors are able to view all resources in the compartment.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a web application running on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) that lets users log in with a
username and password. You notice that an attacker has tried to use SQL comment oe–” to alter the
database query, remove the password check and log in as a user. You decide to prevent any future attacks.
Which of the following OCI services or features would you choose to safeguard your application?
(Choose the best answer.)

A. Network Security Group
B. Data Safe
C. Web Application Framework (WAF)
D. Vault

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
One of the compute instances that you have deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) is
malfunctioning. You have created a console connection to remotely troubleshoot it.
Which two statements about console connections are TRUE? (Choose two.)

A. It is not possible to use VNC console connections to connect to Bare Metal Instances.
B. VNC console connection uses SSH port forwarding to create a secure connection from your local system to the VNC server attached to your instances console.
C. It is not possible to connect to the serial console to an instance running Microsoft Windows, however VNC console connection can be used.
D. For security purpose, the console connection will not let you edit system configuration files.
E. If you do not disconnect from the session, your serial console connection will automatically be terminated after 24 hours.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
You have created an Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW) service in your companys Oracle Cloud
Infrastructure (OCI) tenancy and you now have to load historical data into it. You have already
extracted this historical data from multiple data marts and data warehouses. This data is stored in
multiple CSV text files and these files are ranging in size from 25 MB to 20 GB.

The new CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) is available now!

CompTIA Project+ PK0-005
CompTIA has recently updated the content of its Project+ certification exam, PK0-005, to ensure that it reflects the latest technologies and skills required in the industry. The exam objectives have been modified to better address IT environments, Agile methodology, and risk management skills. The domains covered in the PK0-005 exam have been rearranged and updated to emphasize IT project management skills, with a focus on project management concepts, project life cycle phases, tools and documentation, and the basics of IT and governance. These changes aim to provide IT professionals with the essential baseline knowledge and skills required for project management in today’s technology landscape.

The exam domains covered in CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) reflect the IT emphasis, as IT project management skills have become very important. The exam domains have been modified and rearranged, as shown in the following table.
2.0 Project Constraints 17%

PK0-005 Exam Domains
1.0 Project Management Concepts 33%
2.0 Project Life Cycle Phases 30%
3.0 Tools and Documentation 19%
4.0 Basics of IT and Governance 18%


It’s important to stay up-to-date on the latest changes and updates to certifications like CompTIA Project+. With the release of the new version (PK0-005), many professionals may have questions about what’s new and what they need to know. By continuing to read and engage in conversations about the certification, individuals can ensure they are fully prepared for the exam and have the most current knowledge and skills necessary for their career.

Why Is There a New Version of CompTIA Project+?
Yes, that’s correct. The update of the CompTIA Project+ certification, PK0-005, reflects the evolving needs of the industry and the latest project management techniques and technologies. The certification continues to provide a foundation of essential knowledge and skills that project management professionals need to succeed in their roles.

What’s on the New CompTIA Project+ Exam?
Yes, that’s correct. CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) is designed to cover a broad range of project management concepts and techniques that are relevant to various industries and job roles. It is an entry-level certification that provides a solid foundation for IT professionals to manage small to medium-sized projects effectively. The certification covers topics such as project planning, execution, monitoring and control, project communication, project scope, risk management, and stakeholder management, among others.

In addition to topics you might traditionally associate with project management, the new version of CompTIA Project+ emphasizes the skills needed to manage smaller, less complex projects and ensures the candidate has the knowledge and skills required to:

• Manage the project lifecycle
• Coordinate small- to medium-size projects
• Establish an appropriate communication plan while managing resources and stakeholders and maintaining project documentation
• Support the completion of larger projects within an IT environment

Why Should I Choose CompTIA Project+ Over Other Certifications?

CompTIA Project+ is a vendor-neutral and performance certification.
A vendor-neutral exam means that each exam covers multiple technologies and methods, without confining the candidate to any single one. Vendor-neutrality is important because it ensures IT professionals can perform important job tasks in any environment. IT professionals with vendor-neutral certifications can consider multiple solutions in their approach to problem-solving, making them more flexible and adaptable than those with training in just one methodology.

CompTIA performance certifications validate the skills associated with a particular job or responsibility. They include simulations that require the test taker to demonstrate multi-step knowledge to complete a task.

How Much Does CompTIA Project+ Cost?
The retail price for the new CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) is $25 USD per exam. Keep reading to learn more about bundles, which can save you money. You can also click on the ad on this page to get 10% off a voucher or training product.

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QUESTION 1
A PM is responsible for implementing a new customer relationship management system and has
learned that the sales organization is reluctant to utilize the new system. The organization’s
reluctance could jeopardize the success of the project. Which of the following steps should be taken
to understand the adoption issues and gain organizational acceptance of the initiative? (Select TWO).

A. Train users on the proper use of the system.
B. Escalate the issue to the CCB
C. Hold sessions to understand user challenges.
D. Track system usage and report user activity.
E. Log the issue in the project risk register.
F. Create a memorandum of acceptable use.

Answer: CD

Explanation:
The project manager should hold sessions to understand user challenges and track system usage and
report user activity. These steps will help the project manager to identify the root causes of the
adoption issues and monitor the progress of the system utilization. They will also help to
communicate with the sales organization and provide feedback and support12

QUESTION 2
Following a successful release, a project manager sent a survey to all stakeholders to gain an
understanding of opportunity areas for the team. Which of the following can use the survey results as an input?

A. Daily stand-up
B. Project momentum
C. Performance feedback
D. Meeting minutes

Answer: C

Explanation:
The project manager can use the survey results as an input for performance feedback for the project
team members. Performance feedback is a process of providing constructive and timely information
on the performance of individuals or teams in relation to project goals and
expectations. Performance feedback can help to motivate, improve, and recognize project team members345
The survey results can be used as an input for performance feedback. Performance feedback involves
analyzing and evaluating the performance of the project team and project management against the
project plan, including identifying areas for improvement. The survey results can help identify these
areas for improvement and provide feedback to the project team on their performance. Reference:
CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.1.1

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint?

A. Evaluating the project
B. Releasing the resources
C. Closing the contracts
D. Reconciling the budget

Answer: A

Explanation:
Evaluating the project is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support
the project triple constraint. This involves reviewing the project plan, deliverables, and outcomes to
ensure they meet the project objectives and requirements. Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study
Guide Section 4.4.4

QUESTION 4
During a quality analysis review, the causes of several issues have been highlighted. Which of the
following should the project manager use to identify the MOST important causes?

A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Scatter diagram

HPE3-U01 HP Aruba Certified Network Technician Exam

Exam ID : HPE3-U01
Exam type : Web based
Exam duration : 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length : 60 questions
Passing score : 73%
Delivery languages : English
Supporting resources : Get the Edge – An Introduction to Aruba Networking Solutions, Rev. 22.21

This exam tests candidates on fundamental wireless and wired networking concepts that will be taught in ‘Get the Edge – An Introduction to Aruba Networking Solutions’ course.

Register for this Exam
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.

Exam Details:
Ideal candidateIdeal candidates are those with little to no experience with computer networking.

Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Successful completion of the course or study materials, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

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Exam policies
Click here to view exam security and retake policies.

This exam validates that you can:

Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives

9% Network Fundamentals
Defining networking, LAN, WAN and their components
Explain Different Media type
Compare Unicast, Multicast, and Broadcast
Convert Numbering Systems/ Numerical Conversion

20% Network Communications Model
Explain OSI model layers
Describe the encapsulation process and headers
Explain the TCP 3-way handshake
Describe how common L2 to L7 protocols works
Common Networking Services- DHCP, DNS, HTTP, SSH, FTP, LLDP, ICMP

18% Networking Devices
Switches
Routers
Multilayer switches
AP
Wireless Router
OOBM
Switch interfaces
Aruba OS-CX Network Operating System- CLI contexts,
Show Commands
Basic config

12% L2 Switching
Compare and describe Collison and Broadcast domains
Describe L2 devices
Describe MAC address and ARP forwarding tables
Explain MAC table-based switching
Describe VLANs
Explain and avoid L2 loops

9% Internetwork Communication
IP Addressing
Default Gateway
IP Routing
Inter-VLAN routing process
IPv6 address describe

23% WLAN Fundamentals
801.11 standards and amendments
RF Communications – RF signal propagation
RF Channels
Interference ACI & CCI
RF design basics
Antenna usage and fundamentals
RF transmit power levels
WLAN Mobility and Roaming
Management and control frames
802.11 Header

9% Deploying WLANs with Central
Network Device planes
Differentiate between local and server-based mgmt.
Aruba Central as a Cloud-Based Mgmt platform
Central requisites and communication to AP
Stages of the Central wizard to deploy a WLAN

Sample questions are provided only as examples of question style, format and complexity/difficulty. They do not represent all question types and do not reflect all topic areas. These sample questions do not represent a practice test.

QUESTION 1

How many IP assignable addresses are contained in 10.0.128.0?

A. 4094
B. 254
C. 510
D. 512

QUESTION 2
What is a characteristic of IPv4 addresses?

A. It is 32 bits long
B. It is 128 bits long
C. 12 hex-digit notation
D. Has zero compression rule

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How many addresses does the 255.255.252.0 provide?

A. 16384
B. 32768
C. 8192
D. 1024

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which OSI model layer is in charge of creating data?

A. Physical
B. Transport
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7

Answer: B

HPE0-V14 Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions Exam Dumps PDF

Exam ID : HPE0-V14
Exam type : Proctored
Exam duration : 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length : 60 questions
Passing score : 66%
Delivery languages : Korean, Japanese, English
Supporting resources : Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions, Rev. 19.41 (inactive on April 03, 2023)
Introduction to HPE SMB Hybrid IT Architectures, Rev. 19.41 (inactive on April 03, 2023)

This ATP certification validates a successful candidate has foundational knowledge and skills of the HPE infrastructure strategy, encompassing SMB server, storage, networking, and management tools and their underlying architecture technologies. Given a set of customer requirements and a solution design, implement the solution. The candidate assists with the design and participates in the demonstration/proof of concept, integration, and administration aspects of foundational
HPE solutions.

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Register for this Exam
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.
During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these comments as part of our continuous improvement process.

Additional study materials
HPE ATP – Hybrid IT Solutions V2 (HPE0-V14)

Ideal candidateThe ideal candidate has a minimum of twelve months hands-on experience or equivalent in at least one of the core HPE areas (Server, Storage, and Networking) and six months experience or equivalent in other HPE SMB solutions and foundational technologies.

Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Here are types of questions to expect:
Multiple choice (multiple responses), scenario basedMultiple choice (single response), scenario basedMatchingMultiple choice (multiple responses)Multiple choice (single response)Drag-and-dropPoint and click
Advice to help you take this exam

It is highly recommended that all students prepare for the certification exam by first reviewing the associated 4-hour WBT product training and then proceeding to the ILT training. The WBT and ILT trainings cover topics that are in the exam.
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course alone does not ensure you will pass the exam.
Read this HPE Exam Preparation Guide and follow its recommendations.
Visit HPE Press for additional reference materials, study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.

Exam policies
Click here to view exam security and retake policies.
This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam

Sections/Objectives

20% Describe, differentiate, and apply industry standard, foundational SMB architectures and technologies
Identify and explain industry standard IT technologies used in small and medium-sized solutions and their use cases

20% Recommend and position HPE products, solutions, and appropriate services for use cases
Given a use case, recommend the appropriate HPE products, solutions, and services to meet the business requirement

20% Evaluate customer environment, and plan and design solutions using the HPE portfolio to meet customer requirements
Identify and describe planning, design and sizing tools and when to use them.
Given customer requirements, design an HPE server solution to meet those requirements
Given customer requirements, design an HPE storage solution to meet those requirements
Given customer requirements, design an HPE network solution to meet those requirements.
Given customer requirements, design an end-to-end, small to medium-sized HPE solution to meet those requirements

20% Install, configure, and upgrade HPE solutions and their components and validate the implementation
Install physical solution systems including racking, power, and cabling connections
Given a solution, configure and validate the server, storage and/or networking components including integrating subsystems.

10% Troubleshoot and remediate HPE solution components
Identify the tools and methods to troubleshoot and remediate an HPE solution and when to use each tool and method
Analyze, troubleshoot, and remediate HPE solutions including component integrations (server, storage, and networking)

10% Manage, monitor, administer, and operate HPE solutions and their components
Manage HPE solutions and subsystems to ensure the solution continues to meet customer requitements
;

100-890 CLTECH Supporting Cisco Collaboration Devices Exam Dumps

00-890 CLTECH Supporting Cisco Collaboration Devices
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English

Associated certification
CCT Collaboration

Exam overview
Cisco Certified Technician Collaboration certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco collaboration endpoints and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco collaboration endpoint models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco collaboration software and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

Exam preparation
Official Cisco training

Supporting Cisco Collaboration Devices (CLTECH) v1.0

Exam Description: The Supporting Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 (CLTECH 100-890) is a 90-minute exam associated with Cisco Certified Technician Collaboration certification. The course, Supporting
Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0, helps candidates prepare for this exam.

Cisco Certified Technician Collaboration certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco collaboration endpoints and operating environments. Technicians in this area
can identify Cisco collaboration endpoint models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco collaboration software and identify commonly found software; and use the Cisco Command Line
Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents
of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

35% 1.0 Collaboration Environment
1.1 Describe the VOIP infrastructure
1.2 Describe Cisco converged networks
1.3 Introduce Cisco Collaboration Technology and Solutions
1.4 Introduce Cisco Unified Communication Manager (CUCM)
1.5 Introduce Cisco Meeting Server and TelePresence Management Suite

20% 2.0 Cisco Collaboration Endpoints Equipment and Hardware

2.1 Identify Cisco Webex Desktop Series (DX70, DX80, DeskPro) Hardware Components
2.2 Identify Cisco Webex Board (70, 70S, 85S) Hardware Components
2.3 Identifying Cisco Webex Room Kit (USB, Kit, Kit Mini, Kit Plus, Kit Pro) System Hardware Components
2.4 Identify Cisco Webex Room 55 (Single & Dual)/70 G2 Hardware Components
2.5 Identify Cisco Webex Room Panorama (70, 70D) Immersive System Hardware Components
2.6 Identifying Cisco MX (200 G2, 300 G2, 700, 800)/, SX (10, 20) Quick Set and SX80 Codec
2.7 Identify Cisco TelePresence IX-5000 Hardware Components
2.8 Identify Cisco Collaboration Peripherals hardware

45% 3.0 Service Knowledge
3.1 Describe common network tools used with Data, Video and Voice infrastructures
3.2 Identify service-related tasks specific to Cisco Collaboration Products
3.3 Identify service-related tasks specific to Cisco IP Phones
3.4 Replace hardware due to failure or upgrade

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QUESTION 1
How does the Cisco IP phone learn the voice VLAN ID?

A. through Cisco Discovery Protocol from the switch
B. through Cisco Discovery Protocol from the voice gateway
C. through Cisco Discovery Protocol from the Cisco Unified CM
D. through Cisco Discovery Protocol from the DHCP server

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which screen size does the Cisco DX80 offer?

A. 12-inch 16:9
B. 14-inch 16:9
C. 23-inch 16:9
D. 27-inch 4K

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two benefits of using the Cisco Ceiling Microphone?(Choose two)

A. Smartphone connectivity
B. portable
C. directional
D. frees up table space
E. higher volume


Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which three statements describe the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite (TMS)? (Choose three.)

A. TMS is aware of the call signaling between the call control device and the endpoints
B. TMS can integrate with Microsoft Exchange and Outlook to support flexible meeting scheduling
C. The complexity of a TMS installation is determined by the number of Cisco Unified Communication Manager platforms in a Cisco Unified CM deployment
D. TMS provides distributed control for on-site and remote video systems
E. TMS provides centralized control for on-site and remote video systems
F. TMS is a portal for managing and monitoring a video conferencing network

Answer: BEF

QUESTION 5
How many microphone input devices does Cisco Webex Room 70 G2 support?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: C

1Z0-1037-22 Oracle Knowledge Management 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $245
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 64%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B
Policy:Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Knowledge Management 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1037-22
An Oracle Knowledge Management 2022 Certified Implementation Professional has demonstrated the knowledge required to use, modify and administer knowledge base content and set up reports and configure queues. Individuals who earn this certification are able to use and administer Knowledge Advanced and Knowledge Foundation.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

B2C Service Knowledge Foundation
Use answers
Modify answers
Describe answers relationships
Use answers search
Use answer versioning

Reports
Classify reports
Create reports
Use reports features
Explain the dashboard feature

B2C Service Products and Services – Common Features
Describe products and categories
Explain Service Level Agreements (SLA)
Explain response requirements

Knowledge Advanced
Explain views
Use Knowledge Advanced features
Manage Knowledge Advanced Content
Use Knowledge Advanced Search Capabilities

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about exporting report data? (Choose two.)

A. It can be exported as a Word doc.
B. It can be exported only as an .xlsx Excel file.
C. It can be exported in XML format.
D. It can be exported to a character-delimited file.
E. It can be exported in PDF format.
F. It can be exported using only absolute HTML layouts.

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about replacement tokens? (Choose two.)

A. They enable re-use of existing content of any data type in variables.
B. They enable management of standardized content from a single resource.
C. They enable creation and storage of complex content consisting of integrated text and images multiple times.
D. They enable re-use of content in a standardized form.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of an SLA in Knowledge base?

A. to group and refine related answers based on the product and the service level
B. to provide access to the answers based on the customer service level agreement matching the answer’s access level
C. to give permission to users to add questions in a forum based on the service level
D. to rank customers based on the number of answers posted in a forum based on the service level

Answer: B


QUESTION 4
After how many categories will you see a search box that you can use to locate a subset of the
categories in Knowledge Advanced?

A. 1000
B. 100
C. 50
D. 500

Explanation:

Answer: B

If there are more than 100 work teams, you will see a search box you can use to locate a subset of the work teams.
 

Reference:
Oracle Service Cloud, Knowledge Advanced Administration Guide, 18A, page 70


QUESTION 5
You have created a new answer article for your customer but when you are trying to see that answer
article on the Customer’s Portal you find that it is not appearing.
Which two issues might be causing the problem? (Choose two.)

A. There is no answer content added to the answer article.
B. There is no display position defined for the answer article.
C. The answer status is not set to public or custom status of status type “public”.
D. The answer article is not assigned to any staff member/staff agent.
E. There is no search term added in the answer keyword list.
F. The answer is not assigned to any product/category that is visible to a customer.

Explanation:

Answer: C,F
In order for answers to appear on the customer portal, the Status, Access Level, Language, Product,
and Category fields must be set to a visibility that allows access by customers. If even one field does
not allow visibility, the answer will not be available on the customer portal.
C: The primary factor that determines the visibility of answers is answer status. There can be many
custom answer statuses, but all must be either a Public or Private status type, which is determined
when the custom status is created.
F: Products and categories—The visibility settings for the products and categories associated with the
answer will also affect the visibility. If the answer is assigned to a product or category that is not
visible to customers on a particular interface, the answer will also not be visible to customers, unless
it is assigned to another product or category that is visible on the interface. In other words, if you
have an answer that is assigned to two products, and one of the products is not visible on the
interface, but the other product is, your answer will appear on the interface. However, if the answer
is assigned to two products, and neither product is visible on the interface, your answer will not
appear on the interface under any circumstances.
Reference:
https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/november2016/servicecs_gs/FAABU/_BUIGuide-9.htm

CS0-002 CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Updated

These CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Practice Exams provide you with realistic test questions and interactive, question-level feedback.

1 = 295 Q&A and 7 full-length practice exams of 75 unique questions, We have carefully hand-crafted each question to put you to the test and prepare you to pass the exam with confidence.

All questions are based on the Exam Objectives for the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) exam for all 5 domains of the exam, so you can take and pass the actual CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Certification Exam with confidence!

Threat and Vulnerability Management (22%)
Software and Systems Security (18%)
Security Operations and Monitoring (25%)
Incident Response (25%)
Compliance and Assessment (13%)

After taking this CySA+ (CS0-002) Practice Exam course, you won’t be hoping you are ready, you will know you are ready to sit for and pass the exam.

After practicing these tests and scoring an 90% or higher on them, you should be ready to PASS on the first attempt and avoid costly re-schedule fees, saving you time and money.

You will receive your total final score, a breakdown of how you did in each of the five domains, and a detailed explanation for every question in our database, telling you exactly why each option was correct or wrong. This way, you can pinpoint the areas in CySA+ which you need to improve and study further.

This course stays current and up-to-date with the latest release of the CompTIA CySA+ exam (CS0-002), and also provides a 30-day money-back guarantee if you are not satisfied with the quality of this course for any reason!

What you’ll learn
Take and pass the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) certification exam

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?
You should have a basic understanding of networks and network security
You should have read a book, watched a video series, or otherwise started studying for the CySA+ exam

Who this course is for:
Students preparing for the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Certification Exam

This Course Included

Threat and Vulnerability Management
Utilize and apply proactive threat intelligence to support organizational security and perform vulnerability management activities

Security Operations and Monitoring
Analyze data as part of continuous security monitoring activities and implement configuration changes to existing controls to improve security

Software and Systems Security
Apply security solutions for infrastructure management and explain software & hardware assurance best practices

Incident Response
Apply the appropriate incident response procedure, analyze potential indicators of compromise, and utilize basic digital forensics techniques

Compliance and Assessment
Apply security concepts in support of organizational risk mitigation and understand the importance of frameworks, policies, procedures, and controls

Jobs that use CompTIA CySA+

Security analyst
-Tier II SOC analyst
-Security monitoring

Threat intelligence analyst
Security engineer

Application security analyst
Incident response or handler

Compliance analyst
Threat hunter

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Question 1:
Which of the following would be used to prevent a firmware downgrade?

A. A. TPM
B. B. HSM
C. C. SED
D. D. Efuse

Correct Answer: D

Explanation
OBJ-4.2: eFUSE is an Intel-designed mechanism to allow software instructions to blow a transistor in the hardware chip. One use of this is to prevent firmware downgrades, implemented on some game consoles
and smartphones. Each time the firmware is upgraded, the updater blows an eFUSE. When there is a firmware update, the updater checks that the number of blown eFUSEs is not less than the firmware version
number. A self-encrypting drive (SED) uses cryptographic operations performed by the drive controller to encrypt a storage device’s contents. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, cryptographic keys, hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification information. The TPM is implemented either as part of the chipset or as an embedded
function of the CPU. A hardware security module (HSM) is an appliance for generating and storing cryptographic keys. An HSM solution may be less susceptible to tampering and insider threats than
software-based storage.

Question 2
After 9 months of C++ programming, the team at Whammiedyne systems has released their new software application. Within just 2 weeks of release, though, the security team discovered multiple
serious vulnerabilities in the application that must be corrected. To retrofit the source code to include the required security controls will take 2 months of labor and will cost $100,000. Which
development framework should Whammiedyne use in the future to prevent this situation from occurring in other projects?

A. A. Agile Model
B. B. DevOps
C. C. Waterfall Model
D. D. DevSecOps

Correct Answer: D

Explanation
OBJ-3.4: DevSecOps is a combination of software development, security operations, and systems operations and refers to the practice of integrating each discipline with the others. DevSecOps approaches
are generally better postured to prevent problems like this because security is built-in during the development instead of retrofitting the program afterward. The DevOps development model incorporates
IT staff but does not include security personnel. The agile software development model focuses on iterative and incremental development to account for evolving requirements and expectations. The waterfall
software development model cascades the phases of the SDLC so that each phase will start only when all of the tasks identified in the previous phase are complete. A team of developers can make secure software using either the waterfall or agile model. Therefore, they are not the right answers to solve this issue.

Question 3:
Which of the following secure coding best practices ensures a character like < is translated into the &lt string when writing to an HTML page?

A. A. Output encoding
B. B. Error handling
C. C. Session management
D. D. Input validation

Correct Answer: A

Explanation
OBJ-2.2: Output encoding involves translating special characters into some different but equivalent form that is no longer dangerous in the target interpreter, for example, translating the < character into the &lt;
string when writing to an HTML page. Input validation is performed to ensure only properly formed data is entering the workflow in an information system, preventing malformed data from persisting in the database and triggering the malfunction of various downstream components. Improper error handling can introduce various security problems where detailed internal error messages such as stack traces, database dumps, and error codes are displayed to an attacker. The session management implementation defines the exchange mechanism that will be used between the user and the web application to share and continuously exchange the session ID.

Question 4
Which of the following tools is useful for capturing Windows memory data for forensic analysis?

A. A. dd
B. B. Memdump
C. C. Wireshark
D. D. Nessus

Correct Answer: B

Explanation
OBJ-4.4: The Memdump, Volatility framework, DumpIt, and EnCase are examples of Windows memory capture tools for forensic use. The dd tool is used to conduct forensic disk images. Wireshark is used for
packet capture and analysis. Nessus is a commonly used vulnerability scanner.

Question 5
Hilda needs a cost-effective backup solution that would allow for the restoration of data within a 24 hour RPO. The disaster recovery plan requires that backups occur during a specific timeframe each
week, and then the backups should be transported to an off-site facility for storage. What strategy should Hilda choose to BEST meet these requirements?

A. A. Create a daily incremental backup to tape
B. B. Create disk-to-disk snapshots of the server every hour
C. C. Conduct full backups daily to tape
D. D. Configure replication of the data to a set of servers located at a hot site


Correct Answer: A

Explanation
OBJ-5.2: Since the RPO must be within 24 hours, daily or hourly backups must be conducted. Since the requirement is for backups to be conducted at a specific time each week, hourly snapshots would not meet this requirement and are not easily transported since they are being conducted as a disk-to-disk backup. Replication to a hot site environment also doesn’t allow for transportation of the data to an off-site facility for storage, and replication would continuously occur throughout the day. Therefore, a daily incremental backup should be conducted since it will require the least amount of time to conduct. The tapes could be easily transported for storage and restored incrementally from tape since the last full backup was conducted.

C1000-026 IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 Fundamental Administration Exam

Certification Overview
This entry level certification is intended for administrators who can demonstrate basic support and technical knowledge of IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2, including implementation and management of an IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 solution.
Overall, these administrators are familiar with product functionality and the security policies. They plan, install, configure, implement, deploy, migrate, upgrade, monitor and troubleshoot the IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 software.

Note: The function of specific apps, apart from the two bundled with the product, is out of scope, but the concept of extending the capability of using apps is in scope.
Recommended Skills

Basic knowledge in:
RedHat
Networking
Basic Query Language
Regular Expressions
System architecture design
Security platforms

Requirements
Exam C1000-026: IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 Fundamental Administration

The test: contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.

is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

Exam Objectives
The test consists of 5 sections containing a total of approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 40
Time allowed: 90 minutes
Status: Withdrawn

Section 1: Implementing
Plan and design QRadar deployment.
Implement and install QRadar.
Add Managed Hosts.

Section2: Migrating and upgrading
Plan QRadar upgrade and migration.
Review documentation and release notes.
Perform QRadar updates, patches and upgrades.
Perform migration (e.g., backup and restore, import and export content).

Section3: Configuring and Administering task
Configure event flow sources and custom properties.
Maintain configuration and data backups.
Create and administer users, user roles, and security profiles.
Manage the license per allocation.
Create, review and modify rules, building blocks and reference sets.
Configure and manage retention policies (i.e., data and assets).
Create and manage saved searches, index, global views, dashboards and reports.
Deploy and manage applications and content packages.
Configure global system notifications.
Configure and apply network hierarchy.
Configure and manage domain and tenants.
Use the asset database.
Schedule and run a VA scan.

Section4: Monitoring
Monitor QRadar Notifications and error messages.
Review and interpret system monitoring dashboards.
Verify QRadar processes and services.
Monitor QRadar performance.
Use apps and tools for monitoring (e.g., QDI, assistant app, incident overview, DrQ).
Check system maintenance and health of appliances.
Monitor offenses and detect anomalies.

Section5: Troubleshooting

Exam Resources
To prepare for the test, take the first self-study course listed below. It is free-of-charge and covers all the knowledge and skills measured on the test. The second course listed (BQ103), alone will not adequately help you prepare for the test. BQ103 can, however, be used as a supplement to the first self-study course. To register for the second course, click here to contact one of IBM’s Global Training Providers.

(*) Notes:

These learning sources are recommended, but not required before taking this test.
Every effort has been made to make the recommended learning sources as complete and as accurate as possible, but no warranty of fitness is implied. The learning sources provided are on an ‘as is’ basis. IBM shall have neither liability nor responsibility to any person or entity with respect to any loss or damages arising from course or publication content.

You must be logged in to the Security Learning Academy for the link to the self-study course to work properly. If you see an error message after clicking a link, log in and retry the link.

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QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to import data into QRadar for a specific use case.
The data that has been provided to the administrator is stored in records that map a key to a value.
Which type of data collection must the administrator create?

A. Reference set
B. Reference map of sets
C. Reference map
D. Reference map of maps

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An administrator needs to know if a custom rule is being correlated correctly.
Which QRadar component is responsible for this process?

A. QRadar Event Collector
B. QRadar Console
C. Magistrate
D. QRadar Event Processor

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to collect logs from the Command Line Interface (CLI).
Which command should the administrator use?

A. /opt/bin/qradar/support/get_logs.sh
B. /opt/support/get_logs.sh
C. /opt/support/qradar/get_logs.sh
D. /opt/qradar/support/get_logs.sh

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
To comply with specific regulations, an administrator has been requested to increase asset retention to 365 days.
In which QRadar section can the administrator find the asset retention settings?

A. Admin Tab / Asset Retention
B. Assets Tab / Retention settings
C. Admin Tab / System settings
D. Assets Tab / Asset Retention

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A QRadar administrator added High Availability (HA) to the Event Processor and needs to verify the crossover
link status between the primary and secondary hosts.
Which commands can be used to verify the crossover status? (Choose two.)

A. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/ha_getstate.sh
B. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/getStatus crossover
C. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/qradar_nettune.pl crossover status
D. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/qradar_nettune.pl linkaggr <interface> status
E. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/ha cstate
F. cat /proc/drbd

Answer: C,F

156-215.80 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80 Exam

Exam Name Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R80
Exam Code 156-215.80
Exam Price $250 (USD)
Duration 90 mins
Number of Questions 90
Passing Score 70%
Books / Training CCSM Training
Schedule Exam Pearson VUE
Sample Questions Check Point CCSA Sample Questions
Practice Exam Check Point 156-215.80 Certification Practice Exam

Use this quick start guide to collect all the information about Check Point CCSA (156-215.80) Certification exam. This study guide provides a list of objectives and resources that will help you prepare for items on the 156-215.80 Security Administrator exam. The Sample Questions will help you identify the type and difficulty level of the questions and the Practice Exams will make you familiar with the format and environment of an exam. You should refer this guide carefully before attempting your actual Check Point CCSA R80 certification exam.

The Check Point CCSA certification is mainly targeted to those candidates who want to build their career in Security domain. The Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R80 exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental knowledge and proven skills in the area of Check Point CCSA R80.

Topic Details
Introduction to Check Point Architecture 1. Performance-based
Identify the basic functions of the Web UI.
Create and confirm admin users for the network.
Configure network messages.
Confirm existing network configuration settings.
Install and tour the GUI.

2. Knowledge-based
Describe the key elements of Check Point’s unified, 3-tiered architecture.
Interpret the concept of a firewall and understand the mechanisms used for controlling network traffic.
Recognize SmartConsole features, functions and tools.
Understand Check Point deployment options.

Security Policy Management 1. Performance-based
Create multiple administrators and apply different roles/permissions for concurrent administration.
Create and configure network, host and gateway objects.
Evaluate and manipulate rules in a unified Access Control security policy.
Apply policy layers and analyze how they affect traffic inspection.
Prepare and schedule backups for the gateway.

2. Knowledge-based
Describe the essential elements of a unified security policy.
Understand how traffic inspection takes place in a unified security policy.
Summarize how administration roles and permissions assist in managing policy.
Recall how to implement Check Point backup techniques.

Check Point Security Solutions 1. Performance-based
Evaluate and manage different Check Point security solutions deployed for network access control.
Evaluate and manage Check Point security solutions for threat protection.
Examine how the Compliance blade monitors your Check Point security infrastructure.
Validate existing licenses for products installed on your network.

2. Knowledge-based
Recognize Check Point security solutions & products and the way they protect your network.
Understand licensing and contract requirements for Check Point security solutions.

Traffic Visibility 1. Performance-based
Generate network traffic and use traffic visibility tools to monitor the data.
Compare and contrast various tools available for viewing traffic

2. Knowledge-based
Identify tools designed to monitor data, determine threats and recognize opportunities for performance improvements.
Identify tools designed to respond quickly and efficiently to changes in gateways, tunnels, remote users and traffic flow patterns or security activities.

Basic Concepts of VPN 1. Performance-based
Configure and deploy a site-to-site VPN.
Test the VPN connection and analyze the tunnel traffic.

2. Knowledge-based
Understand VPN deployments and Check Point Communities.
Understand how to analyze and interpret VPN tunnel traffic.

Managing User’s Access

1. Performance-based
Create and define user access for a guest wireless user.
Test Identity Awareness connection.

2. Knowledge-based
Recognize how to define users and user groups for your environment.
Understand how to manage user access for internal users and guests.

Working with Cluster XL 1. Performance-based

Install and configure ClusterXL with a High Availability configuration.

2. Knowledge-based
Describe the basic concept of ClusterXL technology and its advantages.
Administrator Task Implementation 1. Performance-based
Review rule-base performance for policy control.

2. Knowledge-based
Understand how to perform periodic administrator tasks as specified in Administrator job descriptions.
SmartEvent Reports

1. Performance-based
Generate reports that effectively summarize network activity.

2. Knowledge-based
Recognize how to effectively create, customize and generate network activity reports.

To ensure success in Check Point CCSA R80 certification exam, we recommend authorized training course, practice test and hands-on experience to prepare for Security Administrator (156-215.80) exam.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT an integral part of VPN communication within a network?

A. VPN key
B. VPN community
C. VPN trust entities
D. VPN domain

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company; her company is using Check Point firewalls on central and
remote locations, which are managed centrally by R80 Security Management Server. One central location has
an installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote location is using Check Point UTM-1 570 series
appliance with R71. Which encryption is used in Secure Internal Communication (SIC) between central
management and firewall on each location?

A. On central firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall 3DES encryption is used for SIC.
B. On both firewalls, the same encryption is used for SIC. This is AES-GCM-256.
C. The Firewall Administrator can choose which encryption suite will be used by SIC.
D. On central firewall AES256 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT a SecureXL traffic flow?

A. Medium Path
B. Accelerated Path
C. High Priority Path
D. Slow Path

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?

A. Machine Hide NAT
B. Address Range Hide NAT
C. Network Hide NAT
D. Machine Static NAT

Answer: B,C

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Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations updated on August 9, 2021

Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations updated on August 9, 2021

The content of this exam was updated on August 9, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what changed.

Consultants (functional and technical) gather and analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry recommended practices. They serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring apps to meet business requirements.

Consultants should be able to implement core components and features of Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations apps. They should also have awareness of how Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations apps integrate with external systems and tools including Power Platform. The consultant uses Lifecycle Services (LCS), Azure DevOps, and other Microsoft tools and platforms to facilitate the application lifecycle management (ALM) process.

Consultants pursue continuous education by reading the product release notes, reviewing product roadmaps, participating in conferences, or continue learning by using Microsoft Learn, Microsoft Docs, instructor-led training, blogs, and user communities. They should also pursue role-base certifications and assessments to ensure their knowledge is recognized.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturing Functional Consultant Associate Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Commerce Functional Consultant Associate

Related exams: 4 related exams
Important: See details
Go to Certification Dashboard
Schedule exam
Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations
Languages: English, Japanese
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: describe finance and operations apps, and extend apps by using Microsoft Power Platform technologies; configure administrative features and workflows; manage Finance and Operation data; and validate and support the solution.

Skills measured
The content of this exam was updated on August 9, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.

Describe finance and operations apps, and extend apps by using Microsoft Power Platform technologies (20–25%)
Configure administrative features and workflows (30–35%)
Manage finance and operations data (25-30%)
Validate and support solutions (20-25%)

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices.
Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.
Candidates understand common features and capabilities of Finance and Operations apps and how to configure and use each. They should also have awareness of how Finance and Operations apps integrate with external systems and tools including Power Platform. The candidate actively manages application lifecycles by using Lifecycle Services (LCS) and other Microsoft tools and platforms.
Candidates for this exam typically specialize in one or more feature sets of Finance and Operations apps including finance, manufacturing, and supply chain management.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Use common functionality and implementation tools Describe finance and operations apps, and extend apps by using Microsoft Power Platform technologies
(15 20% 20 25%)


Identify and use common Finance and Operations apps, features, and functionality
 describe apps in the finance and operations portfolio
 describe the main components of Dynamics 365 Commerce

 describe uses cases for and capabilities of workspaces and mobile workspaces
 describe case management
 describe global address book features and their use cases
 identify inquiry and report types available in a default installation
 describe use cases for the Business document management and electronic reporting features
 perform common actions including performing searches, saving save queries and views, creating create and use, and using record templates, and creating create filters

Extend app functionality by using Microsoft Power Platform technologiesDescribe use cases for Power Platform apps and services

 identify use cases for Microsoft Dataverse
 identify use cases for Power Apps
 identify use cases for Power Automate
 identify use cases for Power BI
 identify use cases for Power Virtual Agents
 differentiate between pinned and embedded Power BI reports

Configure security, processes, and options administrative features and workflows (30-35%)

Implement security
 distinguish between roles, duties, privileges, and permissions
 assign users to security roles to users based on given scenariosrequirements
 describe segregation of duties
 describe and use the security diagnostics tool

Design and create workflows and business events
 describe use cases for workflows
 design and create workflows
 configure workflow properties, tasks, approvals, and elements
 configure queues, workflow assignment hierarchies, and workflow parameters, and troubleshoot workflows
 troubleshoot workflows
 manage workflow versions
use Trigger Power Automate to extend workflows flows by using business events

Configure organization administration features
 set up and configure legal entities and operating units
 configure and troubleshoot number sequences
 import or create all necessary startup data including postal code data, customers, vendors, and products
 create organization hierarchies
 describe and apply user options including time zones, language, and email settings
 configure document handling for attachments
 configure print management and form setup features

Configure system administration features

 describe use cases for the Microsoft Excel Workbook Designer and the Microsoft Dynamics Office add-in
 configure email (SMTP/Exchange)
 create and maintain email templates
integrate Power BI with Describe use cases for Entity store
 create, export, and import personalization’
Ps and publish saved views
 set up and monitor batch jobs
set up alerts

Manage finance and operations data (25-30%)

Manage data
 describe use cases for the data management workspace and templatesframework
 describe use cases for projects, and types of data entities, and templates
 copy configuration data between companies or legal entities by using the data management framework
 describe use cases for the dual-write feature

Plan Describe thea migration strategy process
 identify common migration scenarios and tools in finance and operations apps
 determine the scope for a migration
 identify relevant data entities and elements based on given scenarios
 establish migration strategy processes including migration scope Identify data migration requirements

Prepare data for migration and migrate data to Finance and Operations apps
 Identify types of data including master, transactional, reference, and parametricidentify and extract source
 generate field mapping between source and target data structures
 import or export data by using the data management framework
 support the transition between the existing and migrated systems
 perform a test migration and validate output from the process
 implement data task automation

Validate and support the solutions (15 20%20 25%)

Test solutions
 describe types of testing, tools including unit, regression, functional, and end-to-end testing
 describe capabilities of available testing tools
 track work items through a project implementation by using Azure DevOps
 create test cases and test plans by using Azure DevOps
 automate and manage test cases by using the Regression Suite Automation Tool (RSAT)
 create test scripts by using Task recorder and upload scripts to BPM Business process
modeler
or Azure DevOps

Implement Describe and use Lifecycle Services (LCS) tools
 differentiate between LCS roles including Owner and Environment Manager
 identify opportunities to re-use existing assets use cases for project asset libraries and shared asset libraries
 analyze Business Process Modeler (BPM) results and identify gaps in functionality
 create an acceptance testing BPM library and analyze results.

 describe environment purposes and topologies
 differentiate between Tier 1 environment and other tiers
 describe use cases for Business Process Modeler libraries

 describe the types of environments, including sandbox, test, and production
 implement the LCS tools including Issue Search and analyze results
 implement performance monitoring

 report production outages
 create and save trace files to troubleshoot performance issues
 describe the impacts of Dynamics 365 One Version service updates on projects

 use LCS tools to identify, report, and resolve issues
 manage Dynamics 365 One Version


QUESTION 1
Your company has recently deployed Dynamics 365 Finance.
You are currently establishing the location of work items.
Which two of the following work items are located in Accounts payable?
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Purchase order.
B. Vendor invoice.
C. Transfer order.
D. Customer Invoice.
E. Sales Order.

Answer: A,B


QUESTION 2
As part of the company™s effort to regulate business processes, you plan to make use of the Business Process
Modeler (BPM) tool in Lifecycle Services (LCS) to make business process alignment possible.
You are classifying the key capabilities of BPM with regards to integration.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the above scenario?

A. You are able to pull master data.
B. You are able to pull reference data.
C. You are able to upload flowcharts from Task recorder.
D. You are able to access external databases.

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Microsoft releases a new feature for public preview that does not require additional licensing.
You want to enable the new feature.
You enable the feature in Solution management.
Does this action enable the new feature?

A. Yes, it does
B. No, it does not

Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Microsoft releases a new feature for public preview that does not require additional licensing.
You want to enable the new feature.
You enable the feature in Lifecycle Services (LCS).
Does this action enable the new feature?

A. Yes, it does
B. No, it does not

Answer: A

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