Exam RC0-N06 CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam for Continuing Education

Eligibility Candidates MUST have:
An active Network+ CE certification earned by passing exam N10-005 or earlier.
Received an email from CompTIA containing a Private Access Code (PAC).

Exam Description
The CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam covers these domains:

1.0 Network Architecture (17% of total)
2.0 Network Operations (15% of total)
3.0 Network Security (20% of total)
4.0 Troubleshooting (28% of total)
5.0 Industry standards, practices, and network theory (20% of total)

Number of Questions 45
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response)
Length of Test 75 Minutes
Passing Score 7​20 (on a scale of 100-900)

Only candidates with an active Network+ CE certification will receive CEU credit.
Passing the exam will automatically renew your existing Network+ CE. Please allow 1-3 days for your record to be updated.

INTRODUCTION
The  CompTIA Network

Re certification  Exam is one way for CompTIA certified professionals to keep their Network+ certification active. A CompTIA Network+ certification earned on or after January 1st, 2011 is valid for three years from the date the certification was earned. The certification must be renewed within three years in order for the individual to remain certified. To remain certified, individuals may:

Re-take (and pass) the current certification exam (N10-006)
Participate in continuing education activities

Take (and pass) the Network+ recertification exam (RC0-N06)

The CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam RC0-N06 bridges the competencies measured by the Network+ N10-005 series and the N10-006 series. The exam (RC0-N06) blueprint includes the objectives new to the N10-006 series and also assesses the highest weighted competencies that appear on the exam (i.e., the knowledge and skills rated by SMEs as most relevant for on-the-job -performance).

NOTE: Availability of RC0-N06 is LIMITED TO THOSE who have kept their Network+ certification active and have not taken and passed the current N10-006 series exam.
CompTIA Network+ is accredited by ANSI to show compliance with the ISO 17024 Standard and, as such, undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives. The following CompTIA Network+ Recertification RC0-N06 exam objectives result from subject matter expert workshops and industry-wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an entry-level IT technical support professional.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content. Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a
comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.

Candidates are encouraged to use this document to guide their studies. The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are represented. The CompTIA Network+ RC0-N06 exam is based on these objectives
QUESTION 1 – (Topic 1)
A technician, Joe, needs to troubleshoot a recently installed NIC. He decides to ping the local loopback address. Which of the following is a valid IPv4 loopback address?

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 172.16.1.1
D. 192.168.1.1

Answer: B

Explanation:
The loopback address is a special IP address that is designated for the software loopback interface of a computer. The loopback interface has no hardware associated with it, and it
is not physically connected to a network. The loopback address causes any messages sent to it to be returned to the sending system. The loopback address allows client software to communicate with server software on the same computer. Users specify the loopback address which willpoint back to the computer’s TCP/IP network configuration.
In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1.
In IPv6, the loopback address is 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, more commonly notated as follows. ::1


QUESTION 2 – (Topic 1)
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address. Which of the following should be configured?

A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations

Answer: D

Explanation:
A reservation is used in DHCP to ensure that a computer always receives the same IP address. To create a reservation, you need to know the hardware MAC address ofthe network interface card that should receive the IP address.
For example, if Server1 has MAC address of 00:A1:FB:12:45:4C and that computer should always get 192.168.0.7 as its IP address, you can map the MAC address of Server1 with the IP address to configure reservation.


QUESTION 3 – (Topic 1)
A technician, Joe, has been tasked with assigning two IP addresses to WAN interfaces on connected routers. In order to conserve address space, which of the following subnet masks should Joe use for this subnet?

A. /24
B. /32
C. /28
D. /29
E. /30

Answer: E

Explanation:
An IPv4 addressconsists bits. The first x number of bits in the address is the network address and the remaining bits are used for the host addresses. The subnet mask defines how many bits form the network address and from that, we can calculate how many bits are used for the host addresses.
In this question, the /30 subnet mask dictates that the first 30 bits of the IP address are used for network addressing and the remaining 2 bits are used for host addressing. The formula to calculate the number of hosts in a subnet is 2n – 2. The “n” in the host’s formula represents the number of bits used for host addressing. If we apply the formula (22 – 2), a /30 subnet mask will provide 2 IP addresses.


QUESTION 4 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is MOST likely to use an RJ-11 connector to connect a computer to an ISP using a POTS line?

A. Multilayer switch
B. Access point
C. Analog modem
D. DOCSIS modem

Answer: C

Explanation:
Before ADSL broadband connections became the standard for Internet connections, computers used analog modems to connect to the Internet. By today’s standards, analog modems are very slow typically offering a maximum bandwidth Kbps.
An analog modem (modulator/demodulator) converts (modulates) a digital signal from a computerto an analog signal to be transmitted over a standard (POTS) phone line. The modem then converts (demodulates) the incoming analog signal to digital data to be used by the computer.
An analog modem uses an RJ-11 connector to connect to a phone line (POTS)in the same way a phone does.


QUESTION 5 – (Topic 1)
A host has been assigned the address 169.254.0.1. This is an example of which of the following address types?

A. APIPA
B. MAC
C. Static
D. Public

Answer: A

Explanation:
APIPA stands for Automatic Private IP Addressing and is a feature of Windows operating systems. When a client computer is configured to use automatic addressing (DHCP), APIPA assigns a class B IP address from 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 to the client when a DHCP server is unavailable.
When a client computer configured to use DHCP boots up, it first looks for a DHCP server to provide the client with IP address and subnet mask. If the client is unable to contact a DHCP server, it uses APIPA to automatically configure itself with an IP address from a range that has been reserved especially for Microsoft. The client also configures itself with a default class Bsubnet mask .255.0.0. The client will use the self-configured IP address until a DHCP server becomes available.


QUESTION 6 – (Topic 1)
A network engineer needs to set up a topology that will not fail if there is an outage on a single piece of the topology. However, the computers need to wait to talk on the network to avoid congestions. Which of the following topologies would the engineer implement?

A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh

Answer: C

Explanation:
Token Ring networks are quite rare today. Token Ring networks use the ring topology. Despite being called a Ring topology, the ring is logical and the physical network structure often forms a ‘star’ topology with all computers on the network connecting to a central multistation access unit (MAU). The MAU implements the logical ring by transmitting signals to each node in turn and waiting for the node to send them back before it transmits to the next node. Therefore, although the cables are physically connected in a star, the data path takes the form of a ring. If any computer or network cable fails in a token ring network, the remainder of the network remains functional. The MAU has the intelligence to isolate the failed segment.
To ensure that the computers need to wait to talk on the network to avoid congestions, a Token Ring network uses a ‘token’. The token continually passes around the network until a computer needs to send data. The computer then takes the token and transmits the data beforereleasing the token. Only a computer in possession of the token can transmit data onto the network.

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PK0-004 CompTIA Project+

Maximum of 95 questions

Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response), and drag and drops

90 Minutes

At least 12 months of cumulative project management experience or equivalent education

CompTIA Project+ certifies the knowledge and skills of professionals in project management. Project+ validates the ability to initiate, manage and support a project or business initiative. And it’s not just for IT technicians; Project+ is designed for any individual who wants to validate project management experience.

Overview
Project management skills are needed in almost every field and can separate you from the rest of the workforce. CompTIA Project+ validates project management skills to employers, both inside and outside the IT profession. Even the smallest projects can benefit from project management processes.

Well-run projects save time and ensure continued focus on company goals. The CompTIA Project+ certification validates the communication and business skills you need to lead projects with confidence, complete projects on time and make sure you stay within budget. Learn more from this infographic.

Project+ answers essential business requirements
Companies increasingly require employees to understand project management skills. 15.7 million new project management roles will be added globally across seven project-intensive industries by 2020.1

Project+ opens new career opportunities
Project Management is fourth in specialized skills in IT job postings. It is also the third hottest in demand tech skill with 39% of respondents with hiring plans said they will be seeking people with this skill in the next 12 months.2

CompTIA Project+ is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-size projects, inside and outside of IT. The exam certifies the knowledge and skills required to manage the project life cycle, ensure appropriate, communication, manage resources, manage stakeholders, and maintain project documentation.

Training Materials
There’s a wealth of training materials available that match your learning needs and learning style. Whether you are studying on your own, or in a classroom environment, we recommend CompTIA Authorized Quality Curriculum (CAQC) training materials that will help you get ready for your certification exam and pass the test.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following events would MOST likely trigger communications to the largest audience for a given organization?

A. Business continuity response
B. Quality audit
C. Replacement of a subcontractor
D. Completion of a task

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A team lead informs the project manager that the datacenter will not be accessible when the project needs to be completed
The team lead also indicates that the team member who is assigned to complete the datacenter project is out on medical leave
Which of the following should a project manager update to document this information?

A. A list of realized risks
B. A list of decomposed activities
C. A sequenced list of project tasks
D. A document describing agreed-upon communication methods

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a characteristic of a matrix organization?

A. Authority lies solely with the project manager.
B. Authority is directed by the project architect.
C. Authority is shared between the project manager and project coordinator.
D. Authority is shared between functional and project managers.

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
When a risk event occurs, which of the following documents is BEST suited for recording and tracking new items corresponding to the risk?

A. Issue log
B. Risk management plan
C. Communications plan
D. Risk register
E. Status report

Answer: C

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C2090-610 DB2 10.1 Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 69
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 66%
Languages: English, Japanese

This Database Associate certification is an entry level exam for a user of any of the DB2 family of products. This individual is knowledgeable about the fundamental concepts of DB2 10.1 through either hands on experience or formal and informal education. The database associate should have an in-depth knowledge of the basic to intermediate tasks required in day-to-day administration, basic SQL (Structured Query Language), understand which additional products are available with DB2 10.1, understand how to create databases and database objects, and have a basic knowledge of database security and transaction isolation.

Section 1 – Planning (10%)
Knowledge of DB2 products (z/OS vs LUW vs pureScale – at a high-level; different products and what they do)
Knowledge of database workloads (appropriate DB2 product to use – OLTP vs warehousing)
Knowledge of non-relational data concepts (XML data, LOB data)

Section 2 – Security (15%)
Knowledge of restricting data access
Knowledge of different privileges and authorities
Given a DCL SQL statement, knowledge to identify results (grant/revoke/connect statements)
Knowledge of Row and Column Access Control (RCAC)
Knowledge of Roles and Trusted Contexts

Section 3 – Working with Databases and Database Objects (20%)
Ability to create and connect to DB2 servers and databases (requirements to give ability to connect)
Ability to identify DB2 objects
Knowledge of basic characteristics and properties of DB2 objects
Given a DDL SQL statement, knowledge to identify results (ability to create objects)
Knowledge of Temporal (Time Travel) Tables – System-period, Application-period, and Bi-temporal – ability to create (Greater precision time stamps)

Section 4 – Working with DB2 Data using SQL (20%)
Ability to use SQL to SELECT data from tables
Ability to use SQL to SORT or GROUP data
Ability to use SQL to UPDATE, DELETE, or INSERT data
Knowledge of transactions (i.e., commit/rollback and transaction boundaries)
Ability to create and call an SQL supported procedure or a user defined function (understanding of passing parameters and results)
Given an XQuery statement, knowledge to identify results
Knowledge of Temporal (Time Travel) Tables – System-period, Application-period, and Bi-temporal – ability to query

Section 5 – Working with DB2 Tables, Views and Indexes (22%)
Ability to demonstrate usage of DB2 data types (XML data types, Oracle compatibility data types)
Given a situation, ability to create a temporary table
Knowledge to identify when referential integrity should be used
Knowledge to identify methods of data constraint
Knowledge to identify characteristics of a table, view or index
Knowledge to identify when triggers should be used
Knowledge of schemas

Section 6 – Data Concurrency (13%)
Knowledge to identify factors that influence locking
Ability to list objects on which locks can be obtained (lock table)
Knowledge to identify characteristics of DB2 locks (common locks shared across platforms)
Given a situation, knowledge to identify the isolation levels that should be used (currently committed)


QUESTION 1
If the following command is executed: CREATE DATABASE test What is the page size (in kilobytes) of thedatabase?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Given the following DDL statement: CREATE TABLE sales (item CHAR(20)); If a DBA wishes to increase the size of the ITEM column, which SQL statement needs to be used?

A. ALTER TABLE sales ADD COLUMN item CHAR(40);
B. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item CHAR(40);
C. ALTER TABLE sales MODIFY COLUMN item CHAR(40);
D. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item SET DATA TYPE CHAR(40);

Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which DB2 object can be used to improve theexecution performance of qualified SELECT statements?

A. Trigger
B. SQL Procedure
C. Sequence Object
D. Materialized Query Table

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
When is it appropriate to use a sequence?

A. When you want to control the order in which triggersare fired.
B. When you want to control the order in which stored procedures can be invoked.
C. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value that is not tied to any specific column or table.
D. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value for each row that is added to a specific table.

Answer: C

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C2090-558 Informix 11.70 Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 62%
Languages: English

The test contains six sections totalling approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 – Planning and Installation (16%)
Identify data access restrictions
Describe database workloads
Describe data type concepts for database planning
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and install Informix
Demonstrate knowledge of embeddability considerations and the deployment utility

Section 2 – Security (3%)
Demonstrate knowledge of authentication
Demonstrate knowledge of authorizations

Section 3 – DBMS Instances and Storage Objects (14%)
Describe how to identify and connect to Informix servers and databases
Demonstrate knowledge of how to create and configure storage objects
Demonstrate general knowledge of the system databases and database catalogs

Section 4 – Informix Tables, Views and Indexes (15%)
Given a scenario, describe how to create a table
Describe when referential integrity should be used
Describe methods of data value constraint
Describe the differences between a table, view, sequences, synonyms, and indices
Describe triggers and appropriate uses
Demonstrate knowledge of schema commands

Section 5 – Informix Data using SQL (14%)
Describe how to use SQL to SELECT data from tables
Describe how to use SQL to UPDATE, DELETE, or INSERT data
Demonstrate knowledge of transactions
Describe how to call a procedure or invoke a user defined function

Section 6 – Data Concurrency and Integrity (10%)
Identify isolation levels and their effects
Identify objects on which locks can be obtained
Describe transaction integrity mechanisms

Section 7 – Tools and Utilities (15%)
Describe onstat, oninit, and onmode utilities
Demonstrate knowledge of data movement utilities
Describe sysadmin database and its functionality
Demonstrate knowledge of the features or functions available in Informix tools

Section 8 – Backup and Restore (8%)
Demonstrate knowledge of backup procedures
Demonstrate knowledge of recovery procedures

Section 9 – Replication Technologies (5%)
Describe the purpose of the different replication technologies

IBM Certified Database Associate – Informix 11.70 Fundamentals

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The successful candidate for the IBM Certified Database Associate – Informix 11.70 Fundamentals has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to provide entry level administration of Informix, including basic SQL (Structured Query Language), how Informix is installed, how to create databases and database objects, security, transaction isolation, backup and recovery procedures, and describe replication technologies and purposes.

This certification targets:
Entry level technical professionals – programming, system design, architect
University students – application of information technology
Entry level DBAs – database administration

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

The following subjects are covered within this examination:
Planning and Installation
Security
DBMS Instances and Storage Objects
Informix Tables, Views, and Indexes
Informix Data using SQL
Data Concurrency and Integrity
Tools and Utilities
Backup and Restore
Replication Technologies


QUESTION: 1
When restoring data, which granularity of object may NOT be restored?

A. a single table
B. a single chunk
C. a single dbspace
D. an entire instance

Answer: B


QUESTION: 2
Which command would you execute to restore to a specific moment-in—time?

A. onbar—t timestamp
B. onbar—r —|og Iognum
C. onbar —r —t timestamp
D. onbar —r -| timestamp

Answer: C


QUESTION: 3
Click the Exhibit button.

An administrator created a table using the SQL statement shown in the exhibit to perform a load operation every day
at 11:00 Al\/I. What is the best way to optimize a backup strategy to recover the client table in case of a failure?

A. a |eveI—1 backup at 6:00 Al\/I everyday
B. a |eveI—0 backup soon after the load operation
C. a |eveI—1 backup on Sunday and continuous log backup
D. a |eveI—2 backup at 6:00 Al\/I every day and continuous log backup

Answer: B


QUESTION: 4
Which command option should be used to resume an interrupted onbar restore?

A. -RETRY
B. -RESTART
C. -RElNTllALZE
D. -BEGlN_AGAlN

Answer: B

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C2090-552 IBM InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 65
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 75%
Languages: English, Japanese

This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Data Growth, Optim Decommissioning, Test Data Management, or Test Data Management with Data Privacy option on a Distributed System.

Section 1 – Installation and Configuration (25%)
Optim Architecture
Operating Systems/Hardware support
Database Support
Establishing Environments
Optim Directories (location, numbers, owners)
Confirming installation pre-reqs
Physical installations
Security
Initializing
Enabling
Configuring
Archive / Extract Maintenance
File locations/sub-systems
File naming / sizing

Section 2 – Optim Core Functionality (35%)
Data Growth
Archive
Delete
Restore
Decommissioning
Test Data Management
Extract / Insert
Edit
Compare
Data Privacy Functions (when to use which ones)
Convert
Privacy Functions
Access Definitions
Relationships

Section 3 – Advanced Topics (34%)
Enterprise Integration
Security
Storage
Automation (i.e. Command Line)
Import/Export OPTIM DDL
Archive Files (i.e., location, collections, moving, registering, creating, managing index files)
Optim Connect
Archive Collections
Archive Indexes
Archive File Maintenance
Complex Data Model Traversals
Extended Data Sources
InfoSphere Federation Server
Optim Connect
Non-Enforced Referential Integrity
Column Maps and Exits

Section 4 – Performance and Troubleshooting (6%)
Log Files, Trace Files and Statistical Reports
Relationships (i.e., delete strategy, OPTIM relationships, Forced Key/Scan Lookups, Scans, Threads)

Relationship Index Analysis

IBM Certified Specialist – InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems v9.1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Solutions v9.1.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* Optim Core Functionality
* LUA
* Optim Search
* Masking on Demand
* Service on Demand
* New Database features and functionality
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Hands-on experience with installing, configuring and using InfoSphere Optim on Distributed Systems

IBM Certified Specialist – InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems Fundamentals

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for application developers, database administrators, and technical personnel who perform the installation, configuration and day-to-day tasks associated with ensuring the smooth and efficient operation of InfoSphere Optim environment.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* configuration of security
* archive and extract maintenance
* archiving and Optim Connect
* decommissioning
* creation and maintenance of test data
* privatizing data
* accessing extended data sources using Optim Connect and InfoSphere Federation Server
* implementing a test data management environment
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Familiarity with Optim Manuals
Hands-on experience with installing, configuring, and using Optim on Distributed Systems


QUESTION 1
You can use the silent installer in a UNIX environment to install the Optim Server. The silent
installer is NOT available for which two of the following platforms? (Choose two.)

A. HP-UX 11i v2
B. Red Hat Linux 3
C. IBM AIX 5
D. Solaris 8
E. SUSE 10

Answer: B,D

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
When installing Optim, what is the minimum disk space needed for the database?

A. 50gb
B. 50mb
C. As required
D. 500mb

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
You are planning an installation of IBM Optim. Which two configurations are supported for the
Optim Server and Optim Directory? (Choose two.)

A. DB2 database running on Ubuntu Linux
B. DB2 or Oracle databases running on AIX
C. Oracle or Microsoft SQL Server databases running on AIX
D. DB2 or Informix databases running on Sun Solaris
E. DB2 or Microsoft Access databases running on Windows XP Professional

Answer: B,D

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about Optim security roles? (Choose two.)

A. Functional Privilege classes such as Create New Actions and Create New Definitions can be
controlled using Roles.
B. Privileges such as Archive Request and Compare Request can be controlled using Roles
C. By default, the Access Control Domain allows access to all Optim Actions and privileges. Only
denial of privileges can be assigned using roles.
D. Default Roles may not be modified to allow or deny Functional Privilege Classes and New
Action Privileges.
E. Edit the FAD (File Access Definition) to control which roles has access to all of the files.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

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C2090-543 DB2 9.7 Application Development

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 60%
Languages: English

This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to design, build, execute, and deploy DB2 9.7 database applications.

Significant experience with intermediate or advanced level skills in developing applications that interact with DB2 databases. This individual has strong skills in DB2 SQL and in database application development concepts.

Section 1 – Database Objects (11%)
Demonstrate knowledge of naming conventions of DB2objects
Aliases
Views
Tables
Describe when to use SQL routines, functions and modules
How to use DB2’s built-in routines
Functions
Stored procedures
Demonstrate knowledge of data types
Integer
Floating point
Strings
Date/time
LOBs
XML data type

Section 2 – Traditional Data Manipulation (32%)
Demonstrate knowledge of authorities needed to access datain an application
Describe the differences between dynamic and static SQL
Demonstrate knowledge of how to query databases acrossmultiple tables and views
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of changing data
Insert
Update
Delete
Demonstrate knowledge of cursors
Types of cursors
Read only
Updatable
Scrollable
Scope of cursors
Create and manipulate cursors
Given a scenario, demonstrate the ability to manipulate largeobjects
Locators
Demonstrate the ability to manage a unit of work
Isolation levels
COMMIT
ROLLBACK
SAVEPOINT

Section 3 – XML Data Manipulation (15%)
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of XML schemavalidation
XML schema evolution
Demonstrate the ability to use XML functions
XMLPARSE
Whitespace handling
XMLSERIALIZE
XMLTRANSFORM
Functions for preparing XML documents fromrelational data
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to useXQuery expressions and evaluate the results
Given a scenario, describe how to construct queries thatretrieve both traditional and XML data

Section 4 – Core Concepts (27%)
Describe how to bind and rebind a package
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of using parametermarkers
Demonstrate knowledge of how to connect to a database (mayuse scenarios)
JDBC
ADO.NET
CLI/ODBC
php_ibm_db2
Embedded SQL
Demonstrate the ability to submit an SQL statement
JDBC
ADO.NET
CLI/ODBC
php_ibm_db2
Embedded SQL
Describe how to manipulate result sets
JDBC
ADO.NET
CLI/ODBC
php_ibm_db2
Embedded SQL
Demonstrate knowledge of problem determination
JDBC
ADO.NET
CLI/ODBC
php_ibm_db2
Embedded SQL

Section 5 – Advanced Programming (15%)
Given a scenario, describe how to create and register externalstored procedures
Given a scenario, describe how to create external functions
OLE DB table
External table
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how changingdata will work when referential constraints are involved
Demonstrate knowledge of distributed unit of work (two phasecommit)
Demonstrate knowledge of trusted contexts
Demonstrate knowledge of using advanced database objects
Global declared temporary tables
Sequences
MQTs

IBM Certified Application Developer – DB2 9.7 for Linux, Unix and Windows

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to design, build, execute, and deploy DB2 9.7 database applications.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Significant experience with intermediate or advanced level skills in developing applications that interact with DB2 databases. This individual has strong skills in DB2 SQL and in database application development concepts.

Requirements

This certification requires 2 test(s).
Test(s) required:

Any 1 of the following tests:
Test C2090-700 – DB2 V8.1 Family Fundamentals
Test C2090-730 – DB2 9 Family Fundamentals
Test C2090-610 – DB2 10.1 Fundamentals
Test C2090-543 – DB2 9.7 Application Development


QUESTION 1
Which condition will prevent a developer from using the DB2 Call Level Interface in an application?

A. The developer must control the cursor names to comply with company naming standards.
B. An SQL precompiler is not available to the developer.
C. The application must create an external scalar function with the CREATE FUNCTION
statement.
D. The DECLARE CURSOR statement needs to be used.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
The statement below was used to create a cursor named CSR1:
DECLARE csr1 DYNAMIC SCROLL CURSOR FOR
SELECT * FROM employee;
After fetching all of the rows in the result set associated with cursor CSR1, which two statements
can be used to fetch the data starting at the end of the result set? (Choose two.)

A. FETCH LAST
B. FETCH PRIOR
C. FETCH RELATIVE
D. FETCH OFFSET

Answer: B,C

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE store(sid INTEGER, info XML);
INSERT INTO store VALUES (1,
‘<storeinfo sid=”1″>
<name>Grocery A</name>
<items>
<fruit><name>Mango</name><price>1.20</price></fruit>
<fruit><name>Apple</name><price>0.50</price></fruit>
<dessert><name>Ice Cream</name><price>6.00</price></dessert>
</items>
</storeinfo>’);
Given the statements shown in the exhibit, a user executes the query shown below:
XQUERY for $store in db2-fn:xmlcolumn(‘STORE.INFO’)/storeinfolet $items := $store/items/fruit,
$count := fn:count($items) return <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
What is the output?

A. 2
B. <itemcount>2</itemcount>
C. <itemcount>1</itemcount>
D. <itemcount>$count</itemcount>

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
You have created a stored procedure (MULTIRESULTS()) on the server which will return multiple
result sets. Whiledeveloping a PHP application using the IBM_DB2 extension, you want to call the
stored procedure. The code shown below will execute the stored procedure:
$stmt = db2_exec($conn, ‘CALL multiResults()’);
How can you fetch all of the result sets from $stmt?

A. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for the first result set; call db2_next_result($stmt) for more result
sets.
B. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set.
C. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each result set.
D. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set; call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each row in the
result set.

Answer: A

Explanation:

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C2090-430 IBM InfoSphere Master Data Management v11.3 (Physical)

Test information:
Number of questions: 70
Time allowed in minutes: 105
Required passing score: 63%
Languages: English

The IBM Certified Specialist – InfoSphere Master Data Management (MDM) v11.3 (Physical) will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to install, configure and deploy MDM on a development workstation along with extending the MDM capabilities using the MDM Workbench. The successful candidate will also understand the architecture components and solution building blocks of Physical MDM.

Design and Architecture (7%)
Describe a Virtual vs Physical vs Hybrid MDM implementation
Describe the Physical MDM technical architecture
Describe the Physical MDM solution building blocks

Data Model (8%)
Describe the Physical MDM business entities and their relationships
Describe common domain entities
Describe administration tables

Install and Configure Physical MDM (4%)
Identify environment setup and configuration

Extending the Physical MDM Capabilities (20%)
Demonstrate knowledge of the Request Response Framework
Demonstrate knowledge of data additions
Demonstrate knowledge of data extensions
Identify how to create code tables
Demonstrate knowledge of behavior extensions
Identify the steps to create a new service
Demonstrate knowledge of composite services
Identify how Physical MDM invokes custom code

External Rules and Validation (5%)
Describe External Rule Framework
Describe external validation and when to use it
Identify how to create and modify an external rule

Data Management (17%)
Describe Suspect Duplicate Processing work flow
Describe Deterministic Matching
Demonstrate knowledge of Probabilistic Matching
Identify components of a Probabilistic Matching Engine algorithm
Describe Physical MDM Standardization
Demonstrate knowledge of search capabilities in Physical MDM
Describe Data Governance

Features and Functionality (10%)
Describe knowledge of management of historical data
Demonstrate knowledge of configurable inquiry levels
Describe Batch Job Processing
Describe the IBM Stewardship Center
Describe Event Manager
Describe language and locale
Describe knowledge of Transaction Audit Information Log

Security (5%)
Describe Physical MDM Authentication and Authorization
Describe Physical MDM security entitlements

Integration (12%)
Describe how to invoke a Physical MDM service
Describe the Adaptive Service Interface
Describe the Notification Framework
Describe the Broadcast Framework
Describe the bulk import and extraction of data

Troubleshooting (12%)
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring and analyzing Physical MDM log files
Demonstrate knowledge of error handling
Describe troubleshooting an installation
Describe Workbench debugging
Describe the Physical MDM support tools

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The IBM Certified Specialist – InfoSphere Master Data Management (MDM) v11.3 (Physical) will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to install, configure and deploy MDM on a development workstation along with extending the MDM capabilities using the MDM Workbench. The successful candidate will also understand the architecture components and solution building blocks of Physical MDM.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Java EE Architectural design – intermediate
OSGI Framework knowledge – intermediate
WebSphere Application Server – intermediate
Rational Application Developer – intermediate
Database Skills – intermediate
JAVA programming – intermediate
General knowledge of XML – intermediate
General knowledge of JMS, RMI and Webservices – basic
General knowledge of MQ – basic

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C2090-420 IBM InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0

C2090-420: IBM InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0

Test information:

Number of questions: 63
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 67%
Languages: English

Section 1 – Configure and Deploy InfoSphere MDM Server in a Development Workstation (9%)

Given a scenario, describe workstation RAD/RSA development environment setup

Demonstrate knowledge of deploying Custom Code

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring MDM Server features

Section 2 – MDM Server Architecture and Domain Model (12%)

Describe basic MDM Server architecture

Describe MDM Server business entities and their relationships

Section 3 – Extensions and Additions (through Workbench) (12%)

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of differences between a data extension and an addition

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of creating code tables

Demonstrate knowledge of how to create a behavior extension

Section 4 – Composite Transactions (8%)

Describe how to create composite transactions using Business Proxy

Describe the difference between composite XML transactions and Java business proxy composites

Section 5 – External Rules and Validation (9%)

Describe External Business Rules Framework

Describe how to create a new external rule

Describe external validation and when to use it

Section 6 – Search Strategy (5%)

Describe search strategy (high level)

Describe different implementations of seach strategy

Section 7 – Suspect Duplicate Processing (14%)

Describe party SDP work flow

Demonstrate knowledge of implementing customized SDP logic

Deomonstrate knowledge of ‘evergreening’

Section 8 – Features and Functionality (16%)

Describe simple/compound history

Describe the MDM Server components

Demonstrate knowledge of configurable inquiry levels

Section 9 – Security (6%)

Describe MDM Server data visibility and accessibility control

Demonstrate knowledge of Authentication versus Authorization

Section 10 – Troubleshooting (9%)

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of configuring and analyzing MDM Server log files

Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of Error handling

The IBM Certified Developer – InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0 will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to configure and deploy InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0 in a development workstation along with being able to customize the data model and develop custom services through the use of the Infosphere MDM Server v9.0 workbench.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Major topics covered by the test include:

Configure and Deploy InfoSphere MDM Server in a Development Workstation
MDM Server Architecture and Domain Model
Extensions and Additions (through Workbench)
Composite Transactions
External Rules and Validation
Search Strategy
Suspect Duplicate Processing
Features and Functionality
Security
Troubleshooting


QUESTION 1
Which two features differ between the probabilistic and deterministic approach to Suspect
Duplication Processing? (Choose two.)

A. candidate list selection
B. matching critical data elements between praties
C. handing A2 suspects
D. determining the match category

Answer: B,D

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
What is a design component of Data Persistency Entitlements?

A. Ancestors
B. Accessors
C. Activities
D. Profiles

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
An external system provides a daily master data feed into InfoSphere MDM Server. New business
proxies are created to synchronize this information with existing data in the MDM database. The
synchronization process involves calling existing InfoSphere MDM Server transactions. What
information does the business proxy use to resolve the identities of business objects and detect
transactions needed in the composite transaction?(Choose two.)

A. business object primary key fields
B. business object foreign key fields
C. business object business key fields
D. business key fields in parent business object hierarchy

Answer: C,D

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about the type of history database triggers in InfSphere MDM
Server?(Choose two.)

A. SIMPLE triggers populate the history record in audit tables when a record is inserted into an
operational table in the InfoSphere MDM Server database.
B. COMPOUND triggers populate the history record in audit tables when a record is updated or
deleted from within an operational table in the InfoSphere MDM Server database.
C. SIMPLE triggers populate the history record in audit tables when a record is updated from
within an operational table in the InfoSphere MDM Server database.
D. COMPOUND triggers populate the history record in audit tables when a record is inserted or
updated from within an operational table in the InfSphere MDM Server database.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

 

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C2090-600 IBM DB2 11.1 DBA for LUW

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 64%
Languages: English

DB2 Server Management (15%)
Configure and manage DB2 servers, instances, and databases
Create and manage database storage paths
Exploit autonomic features
Explain the functionality of WLM
Describe the capabilities of Data Server Manager

Physical Design (22%)
Implement BLU Acceleration
Describe DB2 pureScale enhancements
Create, manage, and alter DB2 objects
Demonstrate the proper use of compression
Describe the SQL compatibility available
Describe the partitioning capabilities available

Business Rules Implementation (10%)
Create and modify table constraints
Enforce constraint checking with the SET INTEGRITY command
Create and use triggers

Monitoring DB2 Activity (12%)
Demonstrate the proper use of monitoring tools
Use the DB2 Problem Determination tool (db2pd)
Describe the capabilities of dsmtop
Capture and analyze EXPLAIN information

Utilities (13%)
Demonstrate the proper use of DB2�s data movement utilities
Demonstrate the proper use of REORG, REORGCHK, REBIND, RUNSTATS, FLUSH PACKAGE CACHE, and ADMIN_CMD
Perform an INPLACE table REORG
Demonstrate the proper use of db2look and db2move

High Availability (13%)
Perform database-level and table space level backup and recovery operations
Configure and manage HADR
Implement a DB2 pureScale environment

Security (15%)
Explain the use of LDAP authentication
Create and use trusted contexts
Restrict access to sensitive data
Explain how to encrypt data in transit and data at rest
Configure and use the Audit facility

IBM Certified Database Administrator – DB2 11.1 for Linux, UNIX, and Windows

Job Role Description / Target Audience

This intermediate level certification is intended for those who understand the DB2 11.1 technology and have the skills required in the day-to-day administration of DB2 instances and databases. To attain the certification, candidates must pass two tests. To gain additional knowledge and skills, and prepare for the tests based on the job roles and test objectives, click on the link to the test below and refer to the Test Preparation tab,

 

QUESTION: No: 1
Assuming no database connections exist, which of the following will dynamically change the LOCKLIST
database configuration parameter for a database named SAMPLE to AUTOMATIC?

A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING LOOCKLIST AUTOMATIC IMMEDIATE
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING LOOCKLIST 8192 AUTOMATIC IMMEDIATE
C. CONNECT TO sample; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USINGLOCKLIST AUTOMATIC
IMMEDIATE;CONNECT RESET;
D. ATTACH TO db2instI;UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING LOCKLIST AUTOMATIC;DETACH;

Answer: C


QUESTION: No: 2
Which two tasks must be done to read data directly from IBM Softlayer Object Storage and insert it into a
DB2 database? (Choose two.)

A. Catalog a storage access alias in the DB2 database
B. Create an FTP account on IBM Softlayer Object Storage
C. Use the DB2REMOTE parameter of the LOAD command
D. Establish a remote connection to IBM Softlayer Object Storage using DB2 Connect
E. Create a local disk alias at the database server operating system level that points to IBM Softlayer
Object Storage

Answer: A,C


QUESTION: No: 3
Which of the following statements about compression for BLU MPP tables is TRUE?

A. Compression must be explicitly enabled for BLU MPP tables
B. Compression requires decompression to evaluate partition joins
C. Unique compression dictionaries are generated for each partition
D. Each table has a single compression dictionary that getsreplicated across all partitions

Answer: D


QUESTION: No: 4
A production database has the following daily midnight backup schedule which includes all table spaces.
The database incurs the same volume of daily actMty (inserts, updates, and deletes).
Sunday – Delta
Monday – Incremental
Tuesday – Delta
Wednesday – Delta
Thursday- Incremental
Friday – Delta
Saturday- Full
Which day would you expect a RECOVER DATABASE following that day’s backup to take the longest
time to complete?

A. Friday
B. Monday
C. Saturday
D. Wednesday

Answer: A

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C9020-560 IBM Midrange Storage Sales V3

Test information:
Number of questions: 63
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 59%
Languages: English, Japanese

Gather Customer Requirements (32%)
Identify a customer’s storage qualifications.
Identify a customer’s expectations of a new solution.
Given a scenario, demonstrate a conceptual level understanding of existing systems environment.
Identify customers key applications, performance requirements, and pain points and information to propose a solution.
Given a scenario, determine financial justification for system acquisition.
Given a scenario, determine a customer’s growth requirements, upgrade path, and product lifecycle.

Value Proposition (28%)
Given a scenario, identify how an IBM storage solution aligns with customer requirements.
Given a scenario, quantify the business value of IBM storage products’ features and functions and align to business goals.
Compare IBM storage products to customer-installed storage devices and competitive offerings, and identify advantages.
Given a scenario, identify how IBM storage products solve client data management issues.
Identify the value proposition of IBM maintenance, IBM websites, IBM sales tools, and IBM processes.

Determine IBM Solutions / Create Comprehensive Solutions (32%)
Given a scenario, identify the processes and procedures to integrate new solutions into an existing systems environment.
Identify workload characteristics and discuss typical business solutions.
Given a scenario, identify a storage solution that includes multiple products and solves a customer issue.
Identify appropriate resources within IBM or through the business partner channel to develop and close business.
Identify the roles and responsibilities of the business partner or IBM salesperson to use TDA and SAPR to ensure solutions meet the customer’s business requirements.

Hybrid Cloud and Analytics Concepts (8%)
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables cloud offerings (hybrid, private, public).
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables analytics.
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables security.

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The IBM Midrange Storage Specialist identifies opportunities for business and generates/qualifies demand using a consultative approach. This specialist determines and effectively uses available tools and resources to determine and sell storage solutions that meet the customer needs and requirements. This specialist has a broad knowledge of the features, functions and benefits of IBM midrange storage solutions and knowledge of competitive solutions. The successful candidate will apply their knowledge of IBM storage products to the customer’s environment in an effort to solve business problems.

The IBM storage solutions included in this exam are: hybrid storage, specifically the IBM Storwize Family (IBM Storwize V5000; IBM Storwize V7000 and V7000 Unified); IBM FlashSystem Family; midrange tape (LTO); IBM Spectrum Protect; IBM Spectrum Virtualize; SDS concepts; and VersaStack (IBM components). A basic understanding and general knowledge of IBM Storwize V3700; DCS3700; IBM Storage Cloud; IBM Spectrum Control; V7000 Gen1 Storwize V5000; and SVC are also recommended.

This specialist can perform the following tasks without assistance: determine basic product positioning across the full IBM storage product portfolio; gather customer requirements; identify and engage correct resources, including technical support, customer demonstration facilities and tools; possess general knowledge of the competitive landscape for midrange storage products; understand TCO/ROI fundamentals; articulate features/benefits/fit of IBM midrange storage products to solve customer problems; identify warranty, installation and support options; deal registration; know where to locate training materials and sales support materials (e.g., sales kits); and articulate CAMSS basics.

This specialist can perform the following tasks with assistance: drill down into solution specifics; articulate and present the configuration to the customer; mitigate competitors; develop the solution; be aware of the purpose and general capabilities of Disk Magic and Capacity Magic; be aware of the Solutions Assurance/TDA process, and where to find specific information on TDA requirements for midrange products; and articulate IBM midrange storage solutions relative to private and hybrid cloud implementations.

This specialist should be familiar with the following resources: eConfig; ePricer; competitive sales tools such as COMP database and CompeteCenter; Briefing Centers; TCONow!; IBM Systems Consolidation Evaluation Tool hosted by Alinean; IBM PartnerWorld; Migration Factory; Storage Assessments (in the Storage Playbook); Storage Playbook; and Visual Storage Intelligence.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Minimum 12 months practical experience selling midrange storage solutions with six months experience selling IBM midrange solutions.


QUESTION 1
The sales specialist is recommending an IBM TS7620 to achieve greater efficiency with a client’s current environment.
What is a potential benefit to the client?

A. Faster performance of their primary applications
B. Simplify legal and regulatory compliance
C. Minimize risk by sending tapes offsite
D. Higher productivity due to shorter backup windows

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A medium-sized SMB customer with an HP EVA 6350 needs new features that the HP system cannot provide.
The general business customer asks for a solution with easy migration and the ability to virtualize the old storage.
Which cost-sensitive IBM system should seller recommend?

A. IBM Storwize V3700 with external virtualization licenses
B. IBM Storwize V3700 with full featurebundle
C. IBM Storwize V5010 with full feature bundle
D. IBM Storwize V5030 with external virtualization licenses

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A customer has a requirement for a low cost tape library. The library must support reparation of library resources (tape drives and cartridge slots) for four different application servers.
Which tape library should the sales specialist recommend?
A. IBM TS3200
B. IBM TS4500
C. IBM TS3500
D. IBM TS3100

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
A customer has a cluster of file servers running IBM Spectrum Protect as the backup application. The client wants to reduce backup and recovery time while eliminating physical tape handling.
Which IBM storage solution meets the requirement to work like a tape library and is based on disk storage?

A. IBM TS7620 with Deduplication
B. IBM Storwize V7000 with Easy Tier
C. IBM TS3500 with LTO-6 drives
D. IBM FlashSystem V9000 with thin provisioning

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which resource should an IBM Business Partner representative consult for current IBM storage sales programs and incentives?

A. IBM Client Technical Specialist
B. IBM Business Partner Sales Playbooks on PartnerWorld
C. IBM Business Partner Client Executive
D. IBM Digital Technical Center

Answer: B

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