Category Archives: Avaya

6211 Avaya Aura Contact Center Multimedia Implementation Exam

Details : Certification Exam 1.50 hrs
Audience Availability
Associated Smart Tracks : ACIS-6209 : Avaya Aura® Contact Center CCT and Multimedia


Description The Avaya Aura® Contact Center Multimedia Implementation Exam (6211) is a requirement to earn the ACIS – Avaya Aura® Contact Center CCT and Multimedia credential.

This exam has 60 questions and the minimum passing score is 70% (42 of 60 correct). The candidate has 90 minutes to complete this exam.

Test Objectives The test covers the following knowledge areas and learning objectives:

Components
Describe how the components such as CCT and Contact Center Multimedia fit into the Avaya Aura Contact Center environment.
Describe the Communication Control Toolkit components.
Describe the purpose of the Contact Center Multimedia in Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) and the network components required to facilitate multimedia contacts.
Describe the components of the Contact Center Multimedia solution architecture.

Multimedia Configuration and Administration
Add the Communication Control Toolkit and Contact Center Multimedia servers in Contact Center Manager Administration.
Perform configuration tasks in Contact Center Manager Administration to enable multimedia contacts in the contact center.
Describe the function of the scripting applications and describe some of the commands and intrinsics to create the applications.
Describe the Multimedia sample applications that are installed with Contact Center Multimedia.
Describe the general settings configuration in the Contact Center Multimedia Administration Web interface.
Configure the Multimedia settings for Contact Center Agent Desktop.

Multimedia Contacts
Describe the types of multimedia contacts that the contact center handles with the Multimedia server enhancements.
Describe the components required to route email contacts including rules, rule components, and limitations.

AACC Multimedia System Monitoring and Routines
Configure and modify outbound campaigns and call data settings using the Outbound Campaign Management Tool (OCMT).
Configure the required properties to route Web communication or Web chat contacts to agents.
Configure the communication tools in the Multimedia Administration application.
Describe real-time and historical reporting for multimedia contacts.
Perform the routine maintenance tasks for the Contact Center Multimedia database.

AACC with POM Integration
Describe the Avaya Aura Contact Center / Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager integration components, configuration, administration, and agent experience.

Prerequisite Knowledge Review the credential curriculum map for any prerequisite information.
Scheduling this exam at Pearson VUE Test Centers Visit the Pearson VUE website at https:://www.pearsonvue.com/avaya/ to see currently available Avaya exams, regional exam pricing and register for a testing session.

Pearson VUE encourages candidates to book testing sessions well in advance (2+ months) to help ensure individual requirements can be met. Candidate demand often fluctuates.

Pearson VUE Authorized Test Centers represent a network of Pearson VUE independent business partners primarily in the commercial and academic market spaces. Availability of testing centers varies by city/state/geographic region based upon business partner participation in the Pearson VUE testing program.

As independent business partners, Pearson VUE Test Centers establish their own hours of operation and testing seat capacity. Reservations are accepted on a first come / first serve basis independent of the vendor exam chosen. Test Center, Online or Pearson VUE Call Center reservations all work from the same inventory of available testing sessions. Contacting a Pearson VUE Test Center can provide candidates with the best understanding of what parameters drive a Center?s days / hours of operation; this can be particularly helpful for Testing Centers associated with academic institutions.
Includes these products

6211-Avaya Aura® Contact Center Multimedia Implementation Exam

QUESTION 1
Where are all agents used in the Avaya Aura® Contact Center POM integration administered?

A. Avaya IQ
B. Avaya Aura® Experience Portal
C. Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager
D. Contact Center Manager Administration

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Where is the administration of outbound campaigns and management of dialing lists performed?

A. Contact Center Multimedia Server
B. Avaya Aura® Contact Center
C. Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager
D. Avaya Aura® Media Server

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which template would you assign to an Inbound skillset so it can be monitored by the POMBlending Service?

A. POM Template
B. Blending Template
C. Agent Template
D. Skillset Template

Answer: D

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71800X Avaya IX Messaging Implementation and Maintenance Exam

Avaya Learning releases new Avaya Certification for Avaya IX Messaging

Overview
Avaya Learning is pleased to announce the availability of a new Avaya Certified Support Specialist (ACSS) Certification. The new ACSS – 7180 Avaya IX Messaging releases with a new Avaya proctored exam hosted by our partner Pearson VUE and recommended associated courseware and testing available today on the Avaya Learning Center (www.avaya-learning.com).

Credential Requirements
The ACSS – 7180 Avaya IX Messaging certification is developed for students responsible for implementing and maintaining the Avaya IX Messaging Solution. Earning the ACSS – IX Messaging certification requires successful completion of passing the following:

(1) 71800X Avaya IX Messaging Implementation and Maintenance exam (target release date February 2020)
and
(2) 60940T Administering Avaya IX Messaging R10 Online Test (available now)

To prepare towards earning the certification please visit the smart track posted on the Avaya Learning Center.

Available Curriculum
The associated courseware for the ACSS – 7180 Avaya IX Messaging is available now. Please visit the Avaya Learning Center (www.avaya-learning.com) for further details on course description, registration and the associated smart track.

Credential Changes – Retirement and Transition
With the release of the new Avaya Certified Support Specialist for Avaya IX Messaging (ACSS – 7180) the ASTA-9160 – Avaya Officelinx and associated online testing will retire on 31 January 2020.

Students who have been issued with the ASTA – 9160 already or those who will receive the ASTA – 9160 prior to retirement 31 January 2020 will keep the credential until the expiration date which will be set to 31 December 2020. Please notice that this expiration date will be reflected on the students credential transcript for those holding the ASTA – 9160 beginning of February 2020.

The new ACSS – 7180 Avaya IX Messaging certification becomes available beginning of February 2020 in conjunction with the release of the new exam 71800X Avaya IX Messaging Implementation and Maintenance Exam delivered at Pearson
VUE Testing.

Channel Partner Note
The Avaya Solution Authorization Policy outlines in detail the requirements at partner level to sell and service Avaya Solutions and is posted on the Avaya Partner Portal (log-in to the Avaya Partner Portal is required to access the document).

QUESTION 1
In Avaya IXTM Messaging High Availability, which server conducts the Database Management operation?

A. Consolidated Server
B. Mobilink Server
C. Web or TSE Server
D. Primary Server

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In Avaya IXTM Messaging High Availability, VSN is designed to support up to how many SIP ports?

A. 150
B. 100
C. 120
D. 220
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
In the event of one or more VSN failures in a High Availability architecture, which component provides continuous voice messaging and message retrieval to all registered users?

A. Consolidated Server
B. Carbonite server
C. Content Sync Engine
D. Voice Server Node

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When the Primary server becomes unavailable, it will stop updating the time stamps on the copied license files that exist on the Secondary server and the Consolidated server.
To stop the expiration of the copied license files, within how many days must the Primary server be recovered?

A. 07
B. 14
C. 28
D. 30

Correct Answer: A

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75940X Avaya Converged Platform Integration Exam

The Avaya Converged Platform Integration Exam (75940X) is a requirement to earn the Avaya Solutions Platform (ACIS – 7594) credential.

This exam has 64 questions and the minimum passing score is 64%.
The candidate has 90 minutes to complete this exam.

Test Objectives
The exam covers the following knowledge areas and learning objectives:

Avaya Solutions Platform (ASP) Architecture
Describe the Virtualization System Architecture.
Describe the Overall Storage Architecture.
Describe the ACP 4200 4.0 architecture clearly defining the differences between an ASP 2400 and ASP 4200.
Describe the implementation of an ASP 4200 design.
Describe ACP 4200 components including the expansion ASP 4200.
Complete the site preparation requirements for the ASP 4200.
Explain the requirements for ASP 4200 frame installation.
Complete the checklist for power up and network connection of an ASP 4200.
Explain the use and maintenance of the Lifecycle Workbook (LCW).
Perform an upgrade.
Describe the startup steps for the Management Server Console (MSC).

Network Architecture
Describe the overall network architecture.
Distinguish between ASP 4200 networking topologies (Layer 3 vs Layer 2 ASP 4200).
Describe VMware networking as it relates to ASP 4200.
Describe the VMware architecture.
Interpret VMware performance monitoring data.

Applications and Operations
Explain the purpose of the IP Template.
Describe Avaya Aura® applications and network interactions.
Interpret Avaya Aura® performance monitoring data.
Describe common operations and maintenance processes.

Virtual Machine
Describe the networking changes required when adding a new VM.
Describe Visualization Performance and Fault Management (VPFM) integration of a new VM.
Update the LCM workbook with new VM information.

ASP 4200 Security
Explain the configuration options of Avaya Session Border Controller with ACP 4200.
Describe BYOD support and Identity Engines (IDE).

Management Tools
Describe System Manager.
Describe the integration of POS applications with SMGR.
Third Party Management Tools.

Avaya Orchestrator
Using Avaya Orchestrator.

Prerequisite Knowledge
Review the credential learning map for any prerequisite information.

QUESTION 1
How would an administrator display the IP addresses of the VSP switches of the ACP 4200 within the Avaya Orchestrator Home Dashboard?

A. By right-clicking on the Dashboard menu item and downloading the network summary report.
B. By right-clicking on the Admin menu item and downloading the network summary report.
C. By right-clicking on the Report menu item and downloading the network summary report.
D. By hovering the mouse pointer over the Up status indicator within the Network dashlet.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Avaya Orchestrator monitors the ACP 4200 components by organizing them into which two groups? (Choose two.)

A. Power
B. Virtual Machines
C. Storage
D. Applications

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
An Avaya Orchestrator administrator has been tasked with getting a copy of the Temperature Values chart for
a Server. When doing this in the past, the administrator has navigated to the Compute Group Dashlet-Host
Up-Host IP Address-Performance Chart. However, the Temperatures Values chart cannot be found.
What is potentially causing this issue?

A. The SNMP credentials for the Server’s thermostats subsystems are incorrect.
B. The IP address chosen is of the ESXi host, not the iLO interface.
C. The Host is currently unresponsive.
D. The Temperatures Values are only available for VSP switches and Storage systems.

Correct Answer: C

 

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7391X Avaya Aura Call Center Elite and Call Center Elite Multichannel Implementation Exam

Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite manages the collection, queuing, assignment and delivery of voice work items to appropriately skilled agents in the contact center. Intelligent routing and resource selection features, determines if customers should be served by the least busy agent, the first available agent, or the agent with skills that best match their needs. Call Center Elite uses the phantom call capabilities of Avaya Aura® Communication Manager to deliver work items to the contact center agents which supports inbound and outbound contacts.

The ACIS – Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite credential validates the candidate has achieved an enhanced level of proficiency required to integrate and implement core and complex products of the Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite.

To earn the ACIS – Avaya Aura®: Call Center Elite, the candidate must pass 7392X, Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite Exam

The recommended training for the credential requirements is in the learning map below.

QUESTION 1
Which three items are needed to properly configure a hunt group in an Expert Agent Selection (EAS) enabled call center? (Choose three.)

A. the Class of Restriction (COR)
B. the group extension
C. the trunk group number
D. the call distribution method
E. the Vector Directory Number (VDN)

Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 2
When creating a vector directory number, or VDN, which four options must be configured to ensure that the call center works correctly? (Choose four.)

A. Hunt Group
B. Vector
C. Extension
D. Skill Level
E. Agent Login
F. Measured Format

Correct Answer: A,B,D,E

QUESTION 3
To ensure that announcements always start at the beginning when played as part of a vector, which action must be taken?

A. Use Analog announcements only
B. Set the queue field to Yes
C. Use external announcements
D. Create forced announcements

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer wants the ability to track the call types for Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) calls answered by agents. These call types will be defined by the customer.
Which call center feature can the customer use to track their defined call types?

A. Redirection on No Answer (RONA)
B. Call Work Codes (CWC)
C. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
D. Feature Access Codes (FAC)
E. Multiple Call Handling (MCH)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A supervisor with console permission can enter an agent’s login ID, and add or remove an agent’s skill via
Feature Access Code (FAC). Agents can also dial FAC to add or remove a skill.
Which statement is true about the configuration of this feature?

A. The supervisors class of services (COS) must have the field “Add/Remove Agent Skills” set to y.
B. The agent’s COS must have the field “Add/Remove Agent Skills” set to y.
C. The supervisor’s class of restriction (COR) must have the field “Can Force a Work State Change” set to y.
D. The supervisors COS must have the field “Can Force a Work State Change” set to y.
E. The supervisors COR must have the field “Add/Remove Agent Skills” set to y.

Correct Answer: E

 

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72200X Avaya Aura Core Components Support Exam


QUESTION: 1
What statement about the H.323 to SIP routing is true?

A. Avaya Aura® Communication Manager does feature processing for both endpoints.
B. Avaya Aura® Communication Manager does feature processing for H.323 endpoint only.
C. Avaya Aura® Communication Manager does feature processing for SIP endpoint only.
D. Avaya Aura® Communication Manager does not do feature processing for any endpoint in this
scenario.

Answer: A


QUESTION: 2
When retrieving a message from Avaya Aura® Messenger (AAM), what is the function of the REINVITE?

A. The RE-INVITE is only used when the initial INVITE is not transmitted successfully.
B. The RE-INVITE shuffiles the media path off Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM).
C. The RE-INVITE is to allow the user to be authenticated.
D. The RE-INVITE is only sent if a voice port cannot be initially connected to the caller.

Answer: C
 


QUESTION: 3
After an Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) upgrade, a customer called Avaya support
because their SIP telephones were unable to login. Support was able to confirm that the telephones
had not been upgraded.
Which pre-implementation step was omitted?

A. Provide accurate licensing specification.
B. Verify version installed is compatible with existing versions.
C. Test all third-party equipment and software.
D. Access support.avaya.com to verify customer systems compatibility.

Answer: B


QUESTION: 4
Which two statements regarding the core architecture in the Avaya Aura® 7 solution are true?
(Choose two.)

A. SIP trunks can only be configured on Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM).
B. SIP user Agents register with Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM).
C. SIP User Agents can register to Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) or Avaya Aura®
Session Manager (SM).
D. Avaya Aura® Media Server (AAMS) cannot connect to Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM)
without routing via Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM).
E. Avaya Aura® Media Server (AAMS) connects directly to Avaya Aura® Communication Manager
(CM) using SIP.

Answer: B,E


QUESTION: 5
Which statement about Interfaces and IP addresses on an Avaya Session Border Controller for
Enterprise (SBCE) used for SIP-Trunking and Remote Worker services is true?

A. SIP Trunking and Remote Worker services can use different IP addresses configured on the same Interface.
B. SIP-Trunking and Remote Worker services can share the same IP address.
C. Only one IP-address should be configured per interface.
D. SIP-Trunking and Remote Worker services cannot run on the same SBCE.

Answer: A

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78200X Avaya IP Office Platform Configuration and Maintenance Exam


QUESTION: 1
Which two applications does the Unified Communication Module (UCM) support without the
addition of an external server? (Choose two.)

A. Avaya Contact Recorder
B. one-X® Communicator
C. one-X® Portal
D. Embedded Voicemail
E. Voicemail Pro

Answer: C,E


QUESTION: 2
When planning for a Small Community Network (SCN), which two are required? (Choose two.)

A. PRI service
B. Preferred Edition
C. IP Routes
D. VCMs
E. H.248

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
References:
http://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/003681836


QUESTION: 3
Which IP Office feature is required to initiate screen pops, where the caller ID triggers a computer to
open a record related to that number?

A. IMAP
B. TAPILink Lite
C. UMS
D. Outlook Plugin

Answer: B


QUESTION: 4
By adding a 4-port expansion card to the IP Office 500 V2, how many expansion units can the IP
Office support in total?

A. 10
B. 8
C. 12
D. 14

Answer: C


QUESTION: 5
A remote worker with Avaya Windows Communicator visits their office headquarters where the IP
Office and one-X® Portal are located.
Which two technologies enable the worker to re-register locally? (Choose two.)

A. Border controller
B. Wi-Fi access
C. Split DNS
D. Port forwarding
E. XMPP

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
References:
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100175092 Page: 40

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Top 5 cities for big data jobs

San Francisco tops Modis list, followed by McLean, Va., Boston, St. Louis and Toronto

Corporate data stores are growing exponentially, nearly every tech vendor is positioning their products to help handle the influx of data, and IT departments are scrambling to find the right people to collect, analyze and interpret data in a way that’s meaningful to the business. On the employment front, the big data deluge is creating a hiring boom across North America. Modis, an IT staffing firm, identified five cities in particular where big data is driving job growth.

San Francisco tops the Modis list, followed by McLean, Va., Boston, St. Louis and Toronto. The roles that companies in these cities are fighting to fill include data scientist, data analyst, business intelligence professional and data modeling/data modeler.

PAYDAY: Who are tech’s highest paid CEOs?

IT JOB SPOTTING: Top 20 metro areas for tech jobs

Business intelligence and data analysis have been core enterprise disciplines for a long time, but they’re becoming more important to businesses as data volumes rise, says Laura Kelley, a Modis vice president in Houston. “We’re in a new era in terms of how large the databases are, the amount of data we’re collecting, and how we’re using it. It’s much more strategic than it’s ever been.”

Big data professionals can be particularly difficult to find since many roles require a complicated blend of business, analytic, statistical and computer skills — which is not something a candidate acquires overnight. In addition, “clients are looking for people with a certain level of experience, who have worked in a big data environment. There aren’t a lot of them in the market,” Kelley says.

 

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Looking at recruiting trends across its offices, Modis finds there’s not one industry that’s doing the most big-data hiring. Rather, the cities have in common a concentration of large enterprises across myriad industries.

San Francisco, for instance, is home to large companies in the retail, insurance, healthcare, and e-commerce sectors.

McLean, Va., has both a strong commercial sector and government presence. “There are many data center operations in this area, both commercial and government related, that require talent to support the high volume of that data,” Modis explains in its report. “In addition, there is no larger consumer of IT products and services in the world than the US federal government.”

Banking and bio/pharmaceutical industries helped put Boston on the big data hiring map. “Both industries deal with large amounts of data that are detailed and complex in nature. That data then needs to be analyzed and placed in reports, dashboards and spreadsheets by data scientist and analysts,” Modis writes.

In St. Louis, universities and healthcare companies lead the big data hiring boom, followed by pharmaceutical and bioresearch firms that need to fill data analyst and scientist roles.

Lastly, in Toronto, financial institutions are fueling a need for business intelligence pros who can help organizations get a more precise and complete picture of the business and customers, Modis finds.

In the big picture, companies often have to compromise and prioritize their wish list — technical expertise, industry experience or quantitative statistical analysis skills, for experience — to find available big-data candidates.

“What is this person going to be doing? Do you need the technical skills? Or is the quantitative/statistical expertise more important? Is this person going to be doing data modeling or making business decisions?” Kelley says. “In an ideal world, companies want all of it. But it’s not an ideal world.”

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7003-1 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both
the T and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is
active to avoid network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)

A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician
has been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are
not transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy?

A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with
three Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and
personnel directories. A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration,
after creating and saving the node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers
are selected, the start sync is selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?

A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will
be transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will
be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be
transferred from Element manager to CallServer.

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer’s needs?

A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your
customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the
installation.

A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.

Answer: C

Explanation:


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QUESTION 1
Which two statements describe the benefits of the Business Advocate (BA) feature? (Choose two.)

A. It enablesrouting of calls to the agent that is most idle.
B. It dynamically matches a customer to an optimal agent.
C. It provides conditional routing of calls to agent queues.
D. It allows for dynamic reporting of call center activities in custom methods.
E. It uses advanced algorithms to efficiently route calls to agents.

Answer: B,E

Explanation: Reference Avaya Aura™Call Center Feature Reference 6.0 page 78


QUESTION 2
What are three added features when you upgrade form Basic Avaya Call Center to Avaya Call
Center Elite? (Choose three.)

A. Service Level Maximize
B. Advocate
C. Hunt Group
D. Call Management System (CMS)
E. Agent Selection (EAS)

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation: Reference : Avaya Aura™Call Center Feature Reference 6.0Page358
Programming Call Vectors in Avaya Aura™Call Center 6.0 Page 205


QUESTION 3
A supervisor wants to endure that a specified group of agents logout at a specified time during the work week.
How can this be accomplished?

A. with After Call Work (ACW) Agent Considered Idle
B. with Forced Agent Logout Time
C. with Interruptible Aux Notification Timer (sec)
D. with Maximum Time Agent in ACW before logout (sec)

Answer: B
Reference:Administering Avaya Aura™Call Center Features 6.0 page 11


QUESTION 4
A customer has Business Advocate (BA) features turned on.
Which technique can be used to protect the predetermined level of service to a valued skill, II
volumes or agent staffing levels change abruptly?

A. queue priority levels
B. reserve agents
C. skill preference levels
D. percent allocation

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
A call center operations manager wants agents to manually enter a code to identify the reason for
being in auxiliary (AUX) work status.
Which feature must be activated on the system-parameters custom-options to allow this?

A. Call Work Codes
B. Authorization Codes
C. Reason Codes
D. AUX State Codes

Answer: C

Explanation: Reference :Avaya Aura™Call Center 6.0 Overview Page 26


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Avaya may hold share offering in April

Private equity companies planning IPO of equipment maker Avaya in April to raise $1bn

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Equipment maker Avaya could hold its initial public offering of shares as early as April, reported Bloomberg citing sources. While the company had filed for an IPO in June 2011, it had delayed the sale due to volatility in stock markets which kept investors at bay, the report added.
The company, which separated from Lucent in 2000, is owned by private-equity firms Silver Lake and TPG Capital.
The firm is hoping to raise $1 billion from the IPO and has appointed Morgan Stanley, Goldman Sachs and JPMorgan Chase to lead the IPO. Avaya has not revealed a price range or the number of shares to be offered. GTB