Tag Archives: CompTIA Security+

Updated Version SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ 2021 Exam Free Training

The CompTIA Security+ certification exam will verify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to assess the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommend and implement appropriate security solutions; monitor and secure hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, and IoT; operate with an awareness of applicable laws and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance; identify, analyze, and respond to security events and incidents

Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese English, Japanese
Retirement English retires: July 31, 2021
All other languages retire: Q1 2022
Usually three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE
Testing Centers : Online Testing

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Why is it different?
More choose Security+ – chosen by more corporations and defense organizations than any other certification on the market to validate baseline security skills and for fulfilling the DoD 8570 compliance.
Security+ proves hands-on skills – the only baseline cybersecurity certification emphasizing hands-on practical skills, ensuring the security professional is better prepared to problem solve a wider variety of today’s complex issues.
More job roles turn to Security+ to supplement skills – baseline cybersecurity skills are applicable across more of today’s job roles to secure systems, software and hardware.
Security+ is aligned to the latest trends and techniques – covering the most core technical skills in risk assessment and management, incident response, forensics, enterprise networks, hybrid/cloud operations, and security controls, ensuring high-performance on the job.

Two people looking at many monitors.

About the exam

CompTIA Security+ (SY0-501) English language exam will retire on July 31, 2021.

The new Security+ (SY0-601) is now available.

CompTIA Security+ is the first security certification a candidate should earn. It establishes the core knowledge required of any cybersecurity role and provides a springboard to intermediate-level cybersecurity jobs. Security+ incorporates best practices in hands-on troubleshooting, ensuring candidates have practical security problem-solving skills required to:

Assess the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommend and implement appropriate security solutions
Monitor and secure hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, and IoT
Operate with an awareness of applicable laws and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance
Identify, analyze, and respond to security events and incidents

Security+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US DoD to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. Regulators and government rely on ANSI accreditation, because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited program. Over 2.3 million CompTIA ISO/ANSI-accredited exams have been delivered since January 1, 2011.

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE : Attacks, Threats and Vulnerabilities

Focusing on more threats, attacks, and vulnerabilities on the Internet from newer custom devices that must be mitigated, such as IoT and embedded devices, newer DDoS attacks, and social engineering attacks based on current events.

SECURITY
Architecture and Design

Includes coverage of enterprise environments and reliance on the cloud, which is growing quickly as organizations transition to hybrid networks.

HARDWARE & NETWORK TROUBLESHOOTING

Implementation
Expanded to focus on administering identity, access management, PKI, basic cryptography, wireless, and end-to-end security.

WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS

Operations and Incident Response
Covering organizational security assessment and incident response procedures, such as basic threat detection, risk mitigation techniques, security controls, and basic digital forensics.
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
Governance, Risk and Compliance

Expanded to support organizational risk management and compliance to regulations, such as PCI-DSS, SOX, HIPAA, GDPR, FISMA, NIST, and CCPA.

Jobs that use CompTIA Security+
Security Administrator

Systems Administrator
Helpdesk Manager / Analyst

Network / Cloud Engineer
Security Engineer / Analyst

DevOps / Software Developer
IT Auditors

IT Project Manager

QUESTION 1
Which of the following will MOST likely adversely impact the operations of unpatched traditional programmable-logic controllers, running a back-end LAMP server and OT systems with human-management interfaces that are accessible over the Internet via a web interface? (Choose two.)

A. Cross-site scripting
B. Data exfiltration
C. Poor system logging
D. Weak encryption
E. SQL injection
F. Server-side request forgery

Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 2
A company recently transitioned to a strictly BYOD culture due to the cost of replacing lost or damaged corporate-owned mobile devices. Which of the following technologies would be BEST to balance the BYOD
culture while also protecting the company’s data?

A. Containerization
B. Geofencing
C. Full-disk encryption
D. Remote wipe

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless computers in a warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and computers are all on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the following should the engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Perform a site survey
B. Deploy an FTK Imager
C. Create a heat map
D. Scan for rogue access points
E. Upgrade the security protocols
F. Install a captive portal

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is MOST likely to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors?

A. SSAE SOC 2
B. PCI DSS
C. GDPR
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: C

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SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ 2021 Exam

Security+ opens the door to your cybersecurity career!
CompTIA Security+ is a global certification that validates the baseline skills necessary to perform core security functions and pursue an IT security career

Why is it different?
More choose Security+ – chosen by more corporations and defense organizations than any other certification on the market to validate baseline security skills and for fulfilling the DoD 8570 compliance.

Security+ proves hands-on skills – the only baseline cybersecurity certification emphasizing hands-on practical skills, ensuring the security professional is better prepared to problem solve a wider variety of today’s complex issues.

More job roles turn to Security+ to supplement skills – baseline cybersecurity skills are applicable across more of today’s job roles to secure systems, software and hardware.

Security+ is aligned to the latest trends and techniques – covering the most core technical skills in risk assessment and management, incident response, forensics, enterprise networks, hybrid/cloud operations, and security controls, ensuring high-performance on the job.

Two people looking at many monitors.

About the exam
New CompTIA Security+ (SY0-601) exam launches November 12, 2020!

CompTIA Security+ is the first security certification a candidate should earn. It establishes the core knowledge required of any cybersecurity role and provides a springboard to intermediate-level cybersecurity jobs. Security+ incorporates best practices in hands-on troubleshooting, ensuring candidates have practical security problem-solving skills required to:

Assess the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommend and implement appropriate security solutions
Monitor and secure hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, and IoT
Operate with an awareness of applicable laws and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance
Identify, analyze, and respond to security events and incidents

Security+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US DoD to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. Regulators and government rely on ANSI accreditation, because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited program. Over 2.3 million CompTIA ISO/ANSI-accredited exams have been delivered since January 1, 2011.

What Skills Will You Learn?

HARDWARE –
Attacks, Threats and Vulnerabilities

Focusing on more threats, attacks, and vulnerabilities on the Internet from newer custom devices that must be mitigated, such as IoT and embedded devices, newer DDoS attacks, and social engineering attacks based on current events.

SECURITY
– Architecture and Design

Includes coverage of enterprise environments and reliance on the cloud, which is growing quickly as organizations transition to hybrid networks.

HARDWARE & NETWORK TROUBLESHOOTING


Implementation Expanded to focus on administering identity, access management, PKI, basic cryptography, wireless, and end-to-end security.

WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS – Operations and Incident Response

Covering organizational security assessment and incident response procedures, such as basic threat detection, risk mitigation techniques, security controls, and basic digital forensics.

SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING –  Governance, Risk and Compliance

Expanded to support organizational risk management and compliance to regulations, such as PCI-DSS, SOX, HIPAA, GDPR, FISMA, NIST, and CCPA.

Jobs that use CompTIA Security+

Security Administrator

Systems Administrator

Helpdesk Manager / Analyst

Network / Cloud Engineer

Security Engineer / Analyst

DevOps / Software Developer

IT Auditors

IT Project Manage


Exam Codes SY0-501 SY0-601
Launch Date October 4, 2017 November 12, 2020

Exam Description:
The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations. The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The CompTIA Security+ certification exam will verify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to assess the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommend and implement appropriate security solutions; monitor and secure hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, and IoT; operate with an awareness of applicable laws and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance; identify, analyze, and respond to security events and incidents

Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese English, Japanese
Retirement July 31, 2021
Usually three years after launch

IT certifications show employers that candidates have the knowledge and skills they need to do the job, and they help IT pros advance in their careers. As cybersecurity has become a critical function, cybersecurity certifications are among the most popular IT certifications globally. More than 500,000 IT pros have earned CompTIA Security+, and the soon-to-be-released 2020 IT Skills and Salary Report includes CompTIA Security+ among the top 10 cybersecurity certifications.

CompTIA Security+ is chosen by more employers than any other IT certification to prove hands-on core cybersecurity skills and fulfills U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) 8570 compliance. As the need to secure more systems, software and hardware grows, more IT job roles are now turning to CompTIA Security+ to supplement cybersecurity skills.

IT Jobs Related to CompTIA Security+
As you may know, the next version of CompTIA Security+ (SY0-601) will launch in November 2020. CompTIA updates its certifications every three years to keep up with evolving technology so your skills are relevant and you stay up to date on the latest technologies.

As cyberattacks continue to grow, more IT job roles are tasked with baseline security readiness and responding to address today’s cyberthreats. Updates to CompTIA Security+ reflect those skills and prepare you to be more proactive in preventing the next cyberattack.

The primary CompTIA Security+ job roles remain the same, as the core security skills’ requirements for those jobs have not largely changed over time:
Security Administrator – Systems Administrator

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But the following IT job roles can also benefit from a CompTIA Security+ cybersecurity certification:

Help Desk Manager/Analyst
Network Engineer
Cloud Engineer
IT Auditor
Security Officer
Information Security Manager
IT Project Manager
DevOps/Software Developer


And even though CompTIA Security+ covers more foundational cybersecurity skills, it sets IT pros up for success in these more advanced cybersecurity job roles:
Cybersecurity Analyst
Security Engineer
Security Architect


CompTIA Security+ 501 vs 601
CompTIA Security+ addresses the latest cybersecurity trends and techniques – covering the most core technical skills in risk assessment and management, incident response, forensics, enterprise networks, hybrid/cloud operations and security controls, ensuring high performance on the job. Let’s break down some of the highlights.
CompTIA Security+ 501 vs. 601 Exam Domains

The CompTIA Security+ (SY0-601) exam now covers five major domains instead of six, guided by a maturing industry job role.

CompTIA Security+ 501 Exam Domains
&
CompTIA Security+ 601 Exam Domains


Threats, Attacks and Vulnerabilities (21%)
Technologies and Tools (22%)
Architecture and Design (15%)
Identity and Access Management (16%)
Risk Management (14%)
Cryptography and PKI (12%)

Attacks, Threats and Vulnerabilities (24%)
Architecture and Design (21%)
Implementation (25%)
Operations and Incident Response (16%)
Governance, Risk and Compliance (14%)

CompTIA Security+ 601 focuses on the most up-to-date and current skills needed for the following tasks:
Assess the cybersecurity posture of an enterprise environment
Recommend and implement appropriate cybersecurity solutions
Monitor and secure hybrid environments
Operate with an awareness of applicable laws and policies
Identify, analyze and respond to cybersecurity events and incidents

CompTIA Security+ 501 vs. 601 Exam Objectives
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Although the exam objectives document is longer, the new exam actually has fewer objectives. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-601) has 35 exam objectives, compared to 37 on SY0-501. The difference is that the exam objectives for SY0-601 include more examples under each objective – the number of examples increased by about 25%.

This was intentional to help you better understand the meaning of each exam objective. The more examples and details we provide, the more helpful the exam objectives are for IT pros to prepare for their certification exam and, ultimately, the job itself.

But remember, exam objectives are not exhaustive: you may encounter other examples of technologies, processes or tasks on the exam. The exam questions are not based on these bulleted examples, but on the overarching exam objectives themselves. CompTIA is constantly reviewing exam content and updating questions to ensure relevance and exam integrity.

How CompTIA Security+ Evolves with the Industry
In a field like cybersecurity, where the job is continually evolving, CompTIA exam domains need to reflect what’s happening in the industry. The following table explains why we updated the CompTIA Security+ exam domains and how they relate to job

Exam Domain

Description
How It Applies to IT Jobs
Attacks, Threats and Vulnerabilities

Includes attacks, threats and vulnerabilities from IoT and embedded devices, newer DDoS attacks and social engineering.

According to Accenture, 68% of business leaders feel their cybersecurity risks are increasing. To combat these emerging threats, IT pros must help identify cyberattacks and vulnerabilities to mitigate them before they infiltrate information systems.

Architecture and Design
Includes coverage of enterprise environments and reliance on the cloud, which is growing quickly as organizations transition to hybrid networks (on-premises and cloud).

To maintain a strong cybersecurity posture and to support hybrid environments, IT pros must understand secure virtualization, secure application deployment and automation concepts.

Implementation
Includes a focus on administering identity, access management, basic cryptography, PKI, wireless and end-to-end security.

To support organizational cybersecurity, IT pros must identify and implement the best protocols and encryption for a particular network/cloud design, mobile solution or wireless setting, for example.

Operations and Incident Response
Includes organizational security assessments and incident response procedures, such as detection, mitigation and basic digital forensics of incidents.

To support operations and the influx of recent cyberattacks, IT pros are called upon to perform incident response earlier in their careers. They must be able to apply basic mitigation techniques and security controls to protect systems.

Governance, Risk and Compliance
Includes how to support basic organizational risk management, security controls and teamwork to support regulations such as PCI-DSS, SOX, HIPAA, GDPR, NIST and CCPA.

In a recent survey of CompTIA certification holders, nearly 60% reported an increase in compliance tasks. To support governance, risk and compliance, IT pros must understand compliance security controls, how they reduce risk and how to implement them to improve cybersecurity posture.

How to Train for CompTIA Security+
It may seem like CompTIA Security+ covers a lot of ground, but don’t worry, we’ve got you! CompTIA offers training solutions, including study guides, online self-study tools and instructor-led courses, that are designed to cover what you need to know for your CompTIA exam. No other content library covers all exam objectives for all certifications.

CompTIA training solutions help you prepare for your CompTIA certification exam with confidence. Whether you are just starting to prepare and need comprehensive training with CompTIA CertMaster Learn, want to apply your knowledge hands-on with CompTIA Labs, need a final review with CompTIA CertMaster Practice or need to renew your certification with CompTIA CertMaster CE, CompTIA’s online training tools have you covered.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following will MOST likely adversely impact the operations of unpatched traditional
programmable-logic controllers, running a back-end LAMP server and OT systems with human-management
interfaces that are accessible over the Internet via a web interface? (Choose two.)

A. Cross-site scripting
B. Data exfiltration
C. Poor system logging
D. Weak encryption
E. SQL injection
F. Server-side request forgery

Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 2
A company recently transitioned to a strictly BYOD culture due to the cost of replacing lost or damaged
corporate-owned mobile devices. Which of the following technologies would be BEST to balance the BYOD
culture while also protecting the company’s data?

A. Containerization
B. Geofencing
C. Full-disk encryption
D. Remote wipe

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A Chief Security Office’s (CSO’s) key priorities are to improve preparation, response, and recovery practices to
minimize system downtime and enhance organizational resilience to ransomware attacks.
Which of the following would BEST meet the CSO’s objectives?

A. Use email-filtering software and centralized account management, patch high-risk systems, and restrict administration privileges on fileshares.
B. Purchase cyber insurance from a reputable provider to reduce expenses during an incident.
C. Invest in end-user awareness training to change the long-term culture and behavior of staff and executives, reducing the organization’s susceptibility to phishing attacks.
D. Implement application whitelisting and centralized event-log management, and perform regular testing and validation of full backups.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless
computers in a warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and
computers are all on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the
following should the engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Perform a site survey
B. Deploy an FTK Imager
C. Create a heat map
D. Scan for rogue access points
E. Upgrade the security protocols
F. Install a captive portal

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5

A security administrator suspects an employee has been emailing proprietary information to a competitor.
Company policy requires the administrator to capture an exact copy of the employee’s hard disk.
Which of the following should the administrator use?

A. dd
B. chmod
C. dnsenum
D. logger

Correct Answer: A

Comptia N10-004 Exam

 

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following ports is default for DNS?

A. 53
B. 69
C. 80
D. 143

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Which of the following components would be used to terminate all distribution and trunk cables in
a central office or PBX?

A. 66 block
B. MDF
C. Demarc
D. IDF

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
A technician has received a call from a customer stating that the customer has logged in, but
cannot access the Internet. The technician asks the customer if the gateway and the firewall can
be pinged. This is an example of which of the following troubleshooting skills?

A. Information gathering
B. Implementing and testing
C. Escalation
D. Documenting the solution

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Which of the following connectors uses 9-pins?

A. LC
B. RJ-45
C. RS-232
D. BNC

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Which of the following ports does IPSec use, by default?

A. 53
B. 500
C. 3389
D. 8080

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 6
Which of the following components is used to terminate a T1 connection?

A. 66 block
B. Patch panel
C. Smart jack
D. 110 block

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 7
During a new employee briefing, employees are given copies of the network user agreement, the
company network policy, and other administrative forms. Which of the following is BEST practice
when granting users access to the companys network?

A. Access is granted once each user has signed the network user agreement.
B. Access is granted once the employee briefing is concluded.
C. Access is granted once the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) signs each network agreement.
D. Access is granted at the beginning of the employee briefing meeting.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 8
Which of the following protocols can be found at the transport layer?

A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. TCP
D. DNS

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the maximum sustainable distance for 100Base-FX?

A. 600 feet (183 meters)
B. 1.2 miles (1.93 kilometers)
C. 2.8 miles (4.5 kilometers)
D. 2,500 feet (762 meters)

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 10
Which of the following is used to relay queries from a private network to the Internet?

A. Content filter
B. Load balancer
C. Proxy server
D. Stateful firewall

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 11
Which of the following OSI layers is included in the TCP/IP models Application layer?

A. Data Link
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Network

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 12
A technician has been tasked to reduce the administrative time spent on the network. The network
uses several VLANs. Which of the following is a protocol that can be added to the switches to help
reduce administrative time?

A. MTU
B. WLAN
C. SIP
D. VTP

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 13
Which of the following tools could an administrator use to determine a workstations default
gateway?

A. route
B. nslookup
C. dig
D. ping

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 14
Which of the following routing protocols is based on being open and takes the shortest path
FIRST?

A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. IS-IS

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 15
An administrator needs to obtain the MAC address of all systems on a small SOHO network.
Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish this?

A. Run nslookup for each IP address.
B. ARP each IP, then look in the ping table.
C. ARP poison the router, then run a network sniffer.
D. Ping each IP then look in the ARP table.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 16
Which of the following is an example of CIDR notation?

A. ::1
B. 10.10.10.0/30
C. 10.192.30.5:22
D. 255.255.255.0

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 17
Which of the following should be used to extend the range of a network between two points where
physical media cannot be installed?

A. WAP
B. Bridge
C. Hub
D. Router

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 18
Installing specialized devices in between network resources and the Internet to distribute network
requests and ensure availability of resources is an example of which of the following network
management techniques?

A. Port mirroring
B. Load balancing
C. Port address translation
D. QoS

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 19
An administrator needs to cut a 100 pair wire in half. Which of the following tools should the
administrator use?

A. Cable stripper
B. Snips
C. Punch down tool
D. Crimper

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 20
Which of the following wireless technologies uses point-to-multipoint for data transmission?

A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 21
Which of the following naming conventions takes place in the data link layer of the OSI model and
is often used in conjunction with IPv6?

A. MAC-48
B. EUI-48
C. EUI-64
D. IP address

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 22
An administrator needs to determine if the local workstation is using DHCP. Which of the following
tools would verify this?

A. hostname
B. netstat
C. ipconfig
D. nbtstat

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 23
A technician is setting up a network for 25 users at a remote location. All of the users share a
single Internet connection. The ISP provides a single IP address for the location. Which of the
following addressing mechanisms should the technician use to provide access and IP addresses
for all 25 users?

A. NAT
B. Proxy
C. Gateway
D. DNS

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 24
Which of the following is MOST likely to be used for telephone wires connected to the plain old
telephone service (POTS)?

A. 66 block
B. 110 block
C. CAT6 patch panels
D. Smart jacks

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 25
Which of the following would an administrator do NEXT once an action plan has been created?

A. Find new symptoms and issues.
B. Identify more areas that may be affected.
C. Determine if escalation is necessary.
D. Implement the plan and test it.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 26
An office is using 802.11a to network the entire office. When a visitor brings a personal laptop to
the office, the visitor is not able to connect to the network. Which of the following is the reason why
visitors are unable to connect?

A. Weak signal
B. Standard mismatch
C. Incorrect channel
D. Wrong DNS

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 27
172.20.0.112 represents an address at which of the following layers of the OSI model?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 28
An administrator needs to create a subnet that will accommodate up to 4000 hosts on the same
subnet but not more than 6000. Which of the following network addresses would the administrator
use to accommodate this request?

A. 10.4.4.0/22
B. 10.10.1.0/19
C. 172.31.146.0/20
D. 192.168.100.0/23

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 29
Which of the following logical topologies uses distributed authentication?

A. Client/server
B. VLAN
C. VPN
D. P2P

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 30
A helpdesk team is unable to agree on a solution to an issue. Each technician presents their own
solution to the problem. When a solution is agreed upon, which of the following documentation
MOST likely needs to be reviewed and possibly updated?

A. Baseline
B. Wiring Schematics
C. Procedures
D. Regulations

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

 

 

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The Main Benefits Of MCTS Courses

If you’re studying this article that implies you’ve decided to take the Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer course sometimes called MCTS course. To get yourself provided with the MCTS courses you are going to need to clear seven exams. Out of these seven four examinations are especially centred at the networking part while one each is for planning and operating software. 7th exam is an elective one and you can select according to your interests. In the operating software as well as planning examination you’ll get the option to make a choice from the 2 options. So far as operating system is troubled you can select either from the Windows Vista or Windows XP.

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You’ll also get the choice to select for the design examination either an active directory or security for the Windows server 2003. You can make an enlightened choice about the platform and part you are ok with. In the elective you’ll get many decisions to make a choice from. As per your interest you can select the course which should give you the experience in the field which should compliment your IT coaching. Now the networking part of the MCTS courses will contain the 4 examinations. All these 4 examinations are primarily based on the Windows Server 2003, an OS for the servers developed by the Microsoft.

Majority of the servers worldwide run on the Windows Server 2003. While studying the curriculum of these examinations you’ll get to understand about the environment in which the Windows Server 2003 operates. Other areas that’ll be explored are the network and active list structure. This is most vital part of the MCTS courses. After you are done with this part you’ll have in depth information about the planning, implementation and management stages related to the windows server 2003 systems.

To make it obvious you cannot skip any of the examinations. All seven exams are compulsory and are going to be cleared to get the MCTS validation. All though you may look at the MCTS courses on your own also but still it’s way better that your enrol with some reputed coaching institute. Some of the MCTS courses aren’t that simple as they would look. So you should go looking for a reputed institute which should offer you the in depth understanding of these courses. You can engage with the faculty about the courses they’re offering.

This crucial to reassure that what the institute is offering is latest in the MCSE, as the curriculum of the MCTS keeps changing every now and then with the changing market conditions. As a defensive measure before enrolling for the course you can check out all of the courses which are being offered to you as you could find some of the other courses like CCNA and MCSA as per your likings. When you’re done with all of these MCTS courses you’ll be able to jump the line of the job candidates and start your career at an advantage.

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Dominate Your Fantasy Football Draft With Excel

Using the Value Based Drafting strategy and Excel spreadsheets, you can create a straightforward cheatsheet that’ll help you dominate your fantasy football draft.

NFL training camps are in full swing, and the regular season is only a month away. This is an exciting time for fantasy football players getting ready to draft their teams. If you own a fantasy football team and are looking to dominate your draft, creating a simple spreadsheet using Value Based Drafting (VBD) strategies can give you the championship edge. Fire up Microsoft MCTS Training Excel (or your spreadsheet of choice) and give it a try.

The ABCs of VBD
VBD is a strategy that goes beyond simply drafting the best player available and digs deeper to help you draft players that will give you the most value at their position. “It’s tempting to look at standard-scoring leagues and say, ‘Oh, clearly quarterbacks score the most points, so I should make sure and get one of those first,'” said Christopher Harris, fantasy analyst for ESPN.com in an e-mail to me. “But if all QBs score a lot of points, scarcity isn’t an issue, and you can potentially afford to wait.”

For instance, say you’re in a 10-team league that starts 1 QB and 2 Running Backs (RB) per game. If there isn’t much difference in quality among the top 10 QBs, but there’s huge gap in production when you get beyond the top 5 RBs, you’re better off drafting one of the top five RBs before the top five QBs even if those QBs score more fantasy points. As Footballguys.com writer Joe Bryant, the guy credited with coming up with the VBD concept, puts it, “The value of a player is determined not by the number of points he scores, but by how much he outscores his peers at his particular position.”
View Slideshow See all (8) slides
Step One: Determine Your Baseline
Step Two: Setup Stats
Step Three: Project Stats
Step Four: Sort Players by Fantasy Points

More

Another big advantage of using a VBD cheatsheet is you can tailor your cheatsheet specifically to your league settings and scoring system. “Gone are the days of counting touchdowns and field goals. Now yardage, receptions, bonuses for TD length, performance bonuses, etc., are all standard fare,” said David Dodds of Footballguys.com in an e-mail, “So it is natural that people want projections (and cheatsheets) that match up closely to their scoring system.”

Your VBD Cheatsheet
Creating your own VBD cheatsheet is fairly straightforward once you know the formulas involved in applying VBD principles, and have a good spreadsheet program like Excel. The first, and most time-consuming, step is projecting stats for the players to be drafted. You can do this by looking at each player’s stats from the past few years and factoring in their current playing situation to estimate this year’s stats.

To create my VBD spreadsheet I decided to trust the projected stats found on ESPN.com and CBSsports.com and my own intuition to estimate how well each player in my league draft pool will perform. Next, I used those stats to determine how many fantasy points each player would score and ranked them from the highest scorer to the lowest.

Ranking Potential Draftees
The critical step in determining players’ value is creating a baseline you can use to gauge other players at that position. The easiest way to do this is the Worst Starter method. With this method, you use the projected fantasy points of the worst starting player at a position as your baseline. So if you’re in a 10-team league that starts 3 Wide receivers (WR), your baseline for WRs would be the 30th WR in your rankings.

While this method works fine, Microsoft MCITP Certification I prefer to use Chris Harris’ method of counting how many players at each position are likely to be drafted in the first 10 rounds. This is harder to determine, but I feel like it gives me a more precise ranking. So if 28 RBs are drafted in the first 10-rounds of a draft, the 28th ranked RB will serve as my baseline player in determining the VBD values for other RBs. You can find a good estimation of what players are taken in the first 10 rounds of most drafts at FantasyFootballCalculator.com.

From there you determine each player’s VBD value by subtracting the projected fantasy points of your baseline player from the projected fantasy points of each player at that position. Finally, you rank all players of every position by their VBD value to determine each player’s overall value.

Go With Your Gut
As with anything in fantasy football, VBD isn’t absolute. There are times where you can afford to, or even should, deviate from the VBD concept. “I think of VBD as a way to normalize positions, so I can have a better sense of breaking points: where does it make sense for me to get my starting quarterback, or my flex player, or my starting tight end?” said Harris. “I’ll also factor in stuff like keepers, ADP(Average Draft Position), and what I know about the knuckleheads in my league (e.g., what positions they like, what players they tend to overdraft, etc.).”

Step-by-Step VBD
For the actual nuts and bolts of creating a spreadsheet using Excel, I called Todd Beckstead of FantasyStrategies.com, and he walked me through the process of creating a VBD spreadsheet of my own. Check out the slideshow to see how to create your own VBD spreadsheet.

If this seems like too much work, Beckstead and Dodd offer applications that can do all the heavy lifting of VBD for you. FantasyStrategies.com uses a Web-based application to generate a cheatsheet tailored to your league’s settings. FootballGuys.com’s Draft Dominator is an awesome standalone app that goes in-depth using dynamic VBD strategies that constantly change priorities based on needs/wants of the other teams and many other factors. The free versions work great, but you’ll want to pay for the premium versions ($4.95 for the premium Fantasystrategies.com draft guide, and $27.95 for the premium Draft Dominator) to get the most up-to-date projections.

Personally, however, I enjoy putting together my own VBD spreadsheet; it really helps you understand the nuts and bolts of your fantasy football league and it’s one of the best ways I’ve ever found to dig into NFL stats. And, as any sports fan worth his or her salt knows, the stats are half the fun. If you’re serious about fantasy football, give VBD a try—you’ll be glad you did.

Like EMC HP pushes around smaller rival in bidding war

Like EMC HP pushes around smaller rival in bidding war

The HP/Dell bidding war over storage vendor 3Par is shaping up to be a repeat of last year’s high-profile battle between EMC and NetApp.

In May 2009 NetApp triumphantly announced a $1.5 billion deal to purchase Data Domain, but was quickly outbid by EMC. Although NetApp raised its bid to $1.9 billion, EMC eventually won the seven-week bidding war with a $2.1 billion offer that provided a key victory over its smaller rival.
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Tech M&A deals of 2010

Fast forward to August 2010, and HP has offered $1.6 billion to purchase 3Par, topping Dell’s bid of $1.15 billion. If the HP/Dell contest follows the same pattern, Dell will soon raise the bid closer to $2 billion. (See also: Five technology bidding wars preceding EMC vs. NetApp.)

“The strategic value of 3Par to Dell is such that it wouldn’t surprise me to see Dell come back with a counteroffer,” says Pund-IT analyst Charles King. “3Par is going to go to whichever company has the stomach to stick with the bidding.”

Like EMC, HP is trying to push around a smaller competitor. HP reported more than $30 billion of revenue in the most recent quarter, compared to $15.5 billion for Dell. But while the HP/Dell situation is similar to the EMC/NetApp bidding war of 2009, there are some key differences.

At the time of the Data Domain bidding war, EMC reportedly had $7 billion in cash reserves, compared to $2.7 billion for NetApp. According to YCharts, HP has $14.17 billion cash on hand, compared to Dell’s $10.88 billion Microsoft MCTS Training.

While HP clearly has more money to spare in the contest for 3Par, Dell has a much larger cushion than NetApp did when it was pursuing Data Domain.

HP is also in a precarious position with shareholders, partly due to CEO Mark Hurd being forced out of the company in the wake of sexual harassment accusations.

“If HP pushes this too far, they’re going to have to come up with some very solid justification,” King says. “3Par is a highly innovative company, but this is still a fairly young market. The payoff is further down the road than a deal for a well-known entity like, say, NetApp would be.”

But even if one assumes that Dell is in a better position vs. HP than NetApp was vs. EMC, there is still at least one other consideration: 3Par isn’t the only option for either HP or Dell.

EMC and NetApp seemed to believe that Data Domain was far and away the best option in the data de-duplication market. 3Par is attractive to HP and Dell because of its thin provisioning and virtualized storage technology. But there are other vendors offering cloud-centric, highly virtualized storage systems (Isilon and Compellent are two examples).

Thus, if either HP or Dell believes the price for 3Par is too high, they may be less gung ho than EMC and NetApp were over Data Domain because they have other options Microsoft MCITP Certification.

“There are other companies in this space,” King says. “3Par wasn’t alone.”

Microsoft MCSE Messaging Certification Overview

Microsoft MCSE Messaging Certification Overview
Microsoft MCSE  Messaging (Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer) Certification enables IT professionals to proof extensive skills in planning, deploying, supporting, maintaining, and optimizing IT infrastructures. It includes . Microsoft MCSE Messaging Certification The Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer Certification (Microsoft MCSE Messaging Certification) credential establish that MCSE Messaging certificates holder has the extensive necessary skills to perform a particular job role, such as System administrator or database administrator MCSE Messaging certifications build on the Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer (MCSE Messaging) certifications and MCSE Messaging exam. Therefore, you will earn one or more MCSE Messaging certifications on your way to earning an MCSE Certification.

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Microsoft MCSE Study Guide & Questions. Covers Core Exams 70-210, 70-215,70-216 70-298 measures your ability to implement, administer, and troubleshoot Windows 2000 as a operating system in any network environment with emphasis on actual exam Microsoft MCSE Study Guide & Questions. Covers Core Exams 70-210, 70-215, 70-216, 70-217 measures your ability to implement, administer, and troubleshoot Windows 2000 as a operating system in any network environment with emphasis on actual exam questions. Includes Windows 2000 Professional, Server, Active Directory, and Network Infrastructure topics including implementing and conducting administration of resources; implementing,& managing IT operations. exam focuses on the following server roles: file and print, database, messaging, proxy server or firewall, dial-in server, desktop management, and Application server (including Web hosting server). Connectivity needs include connecting individual offices and users at remote locations to the corporate network, and connecting corporate networks to the Internet. Also explains DNS, DHCP, Remote Access, Network Protocols, WINS, and IP Routing. In addition, measures the skills required to manage, monitor, and troubleshoot Network Address Translation (NAT) and Certificate Services. Explains and then tests you on Active Directory, DNS for Active Directory, the components of Active Directory, Active Directory security solutions, as well as change and configuration management. Wheelertech was founded in early 1999, in order to help the flood of students studying for the prestigious MCSE! Since we had also gone through the MCSE study cycle, we knew there were shortfalls in the area of exam materials. The most notable shortfalls were 1) the cost of the materials, and 2) the quality of the materials. So we decided to make good materials at a price students' could afford. Many companies spend a lot of money (thus making you spend lots of money) making their programs really complicated. Not us! We've kept in mind what's important: quality questions and a price that you can afford!.

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Google Verizon in talks on net neutrality deal?

Google Verizon in talks on net neutrality deal?
Google and Verizon are reportedly in talks over how to manage network traffic, an agreement that could influence how U.S. regulators view network neutrality, according to a report in Thursday’s Wall Street Journal.

Verizon confirmed the talks have been ongoing with Google and the U.S. Federal Communications Commission (FCC) for 10 months, the paper reported Microsoft MCTS Training.
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The agreement would apparently lay out principles around network neutrality, or the belief that service providers should not slow down certain kinds of traffic on their networks. The agreement, however, would reportedly allow service providers to prioritize traffic if customers paid for that kind of service, the paper said.

Network providers have maintained that they need to restrict some kinds of Internet traffic in order to keep a consistent quality of service across their customers bases. That has happened, for example, for file-sharing protocols such as BitTorrent. But it is feared that network providers may unfairly restrict other kinds of applications and protocols for competitive purposes. Wireless networks would not be subject to the agreement, according to the report.

The FCC has been talking to large service providers about how to regulate net neutrality. That has drawn criticism from groups such as Public Knowledge, whose communications director wrote that any agreement between Google and Verizon could be short-lived as it wouldn’t have the force of law.

A Google-Verizon deal “is no substitute for a legally binding, comprehensive agreement in the public interest that covers not only network management but universal service and the other issues rolled up in the larger question whether the FCC even has the authority over broadband,” wrote Art Brodsky on the group’s blog.

The DC Circuit Court of Appeals threw a major wrench in the Federal Communications Commission’s plans to implement network neutrality regulations today when it ruled that the FCC had no authority to regulate ISPs’ network management practices Microsoft MCITP Certification.

Google officials contacted in London said they had no comment.

Frequently Used Control Panels For Windows And Linux

Frequently Used Control Panels For Windows And Linux
Today, a myriad of players, counting from individual to big corporation are challenging each other in the field of web hosting. It is definitely a highly competitive field and an important requirement for webmaster to make his website available to the entire world. In fact, the raging competition has now reached to an advanced stage, where all the web hosting companies are taking up sincere efforts to excel each other. Also, they are providing very efficient technical support. However, the additional features such as free domain name and site builder and total expense keep varying from company to company. Here, the control panel points out a difference and you have to select the appropriate service that meets your demands the best.

Provided by a web hosting company, control panel is a software to direct and manage your website hosting. It lets you manage all your vital activities such as email creation, opening of your FTP accounts, statistics report and many more Microsoft MCTS Training.

Windows Only platform

For windows, helm is a Windows only web hosting control panel. It comes with numerous customer friendly features along with the very conspicuous aspect of the billing information. Excluding the H-sphere, almost none of the commonly used control panel provides billing information inside the control panel. Moreover, Helm control panel has been taken as one of the most easy to operate panel with good standard interface.
Another windows only web hosting panel is Hosting Accelerator. Presently, in the market, it appears to mark a better impression by screening more stuff. However, on the contrary, it has also stated the unplanned interface and largely lacks in offering various additional features. Hence, it best suits the players with intermittent need.

Linux Only Platform

cPanel is doubtlessly, the most preferred choice among all the other control panels. It comes with several productive features with easy operation at affordable expense. In fact, to get more precise over the economic issue, it would be interesting to know that it costs only $20 per month/server.

Second in this queue stands Interworx. It is tremendously sophisticated yet uncomplicated enough to manage for even the beginner. Of course, the ease of use starts with the simple interface where all of the crucial controls are in basic view with wide-ranging tools to direct you through the configuration course. Moreover, the learning curve is totally unswerving, enabling you to develop into a more advanced one after surpassing each task.

Third in a row comes the DirectAdmin control panel serving Linux platform. It is considered as an economic solution and provides as low hosting cost as $10 per month. Moreover, it is also known for its easy and uncomplicated usability. However, irrespective of its various claims to have many fruitful features, it still needs to add a lot of improvements to beat in competition, the other Linux only control panels.

Both Linux and Windows

Plesk is an amazing control panel that works for both Linux and Windows. It is quite a standard pick up for people working on both the mentioned operating systems. Plesk interface appears like Windows XP and it is obviously little expensive because of its ability of suiting both the platforms. Moreover, the website builder tool and other features amalgamate easily with Plesk as well.

Also, H-Sphere is one commonly used control panel for both Linux and Windows. The panel is extensively used by the web hosting sites and lacks many good features when compared to Plesk and cPanel. However, on the contrary, it does provide several features from key functionalities to complete automation Microsoft MCITP Certification.

However, it goes without saying that you must choose your preferred control panel as per your requirements and suitability. However, as far as the factual details are concerned, so far, the ratings suggest that cPanel is preferred for Linux platform and Helm control panel is quite more than suitable for Windows platform. To know more about these control panels, you may log on to gigaweb.co.uk.

IT Management Training in the UK: The Certification Process

IT Management Training in the UK: The Certification Process
One of the major problems faced by IT departments, large as well as small, in the UK is making sure that their staff members are satisfactorily educated. In this present day spirited business climate, education budgets are frequently the first to fall to the cost-cutting and expenditure-containment process. For quite a few corporations, it just isn’t cost effective to send staff to off-site courses that can involve considerable travel and lodging expenses. Integrating training at the work facility is one option quite a few corporations explore with varying levels of achievement. Staff member work schedules and task obligations often will not permit staff members to give their total attention to an on-site schooling seminar or class. One solution quite a few businesses have been introduced to is online self study courses, several of which lead to industry-accepted certifications.

IT Management Training – The Basics of Online IT Training and Certification Programs

This style of IT management training is at your convenience, which means that those being taught can gain admittance to lessons when and where it is best for them. Generally, these lessons present unlimited access for a year. A lot of of the IT industry’s most sought-after certifications are offered in these courses, including MCSE, CCNA and MCITP. The best online training providers offer next day training course delivery and setup that will adjust into even the most taxing professional’s work agenda. Printed study materials also are offered to add emphasis to the online training. Several online training corporations offer a 60-day money back promise and allow for learners to repeat courses, if needed. Below is some data in regards to three of the most well-known and inexpensive online training classes.

IT Management Training – Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer

Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer (MCSE) certification enables employees to obtain the ability required to design, carry out and administer IT solutions in company environments. This training course is a need for IT managers whose duties include setting up, organizing as well as troubleshooting network systems. MCSE experts are qualified to design and carry out a variety of technology infrastructures such as system engineers, technological consultants, network analysts as well as systems analysts.

Cisco Certified Network Associate

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification qualifies staff to install, organise, run as well as troubleshoot Cisco networks. The training course involves training on routed as well as switched networks. Furthermore covered is the employment and corroboration of WAN network connections to distant sites. WANs are broad area networks which are made by linking various LANs (community area networks). Cisco also provides separate certifications in network security, voice as well as wireless systems.

IT Management Training – Microsoft Certified IT Professional

Microsoft Certified IT Professional (MCITP) validates the skill set needed to perform a specific technical task role like database administration. To meet the criteria for this certification, students are required to first gain one or several Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist (MCTS Training and MCTS Certification) designations. Included in MCITP, there are various well-known sub-specialities, including server administrator, business intelligence developer, database administrator, enterprise administrator and also enterprise project management.

An exam is going to cost close to $125 USD each and commonly will take about 2 to 3 hours to take. Most exams will have between 45 and 90 questions. Exams test solution building ability and have simulated content that calculates candidates’ abilities to execute tasks closely linked to the subject of the exam.

Many UK business experts decide to boost their professions by way of IT management training.